- #1
brendan_foo
- 65
- 0
Hi there,
Only a slight problem here... My girlfriend has just taken a calc 1 quiz and she's presented this problem to me which goes against the grain of what I know - however, I could be hideously mis-informed.
She was asked to draw a graph of a piece-wise function given some definitions and limits. I shall only state the area that is causing me some intuitive grief.
[tex]
f(0) = 2
[/tex]
[tex]
\lim_{x\to{0^-}} f(x) = -1
[/tex]
[tex]
\lim_{x\to{0^+}} f(x) = 1
[/tex]
If f(0) is most definitely defined at that point, why is it not its limit. By this logic, couldn't i essentially dot defined, singular points all over any arbitrary graph with DEFINITE two sided limits...This is my problem...
Any opinions?
Cheers guys...Brendan
Only a slight problem here... My girlfriend has just taken a calc 1 quiz and she's presented this problem to me which goes against the grain of what I know - however, I could be hideously mis-informed.
She was asked to draw a graph of a piece-wise function given some definitions and limits. I shall only state the area that is causing me some intuitive grief.
[tex]
f(0) = 2
[/tex]
[tex]
\lim_{x\to{0^-}} f(x) = -1
[/tex]
[tex]
\lim_{x\to{0^+}} f(x) = 1
[/tex]
If f(0) is most definitely defined at that point, why is it not its limit. By this logic, couldn't i essentially dot defined, singular points all over any arbitrary graph with DEFINITE two sided limits...This is my problem...
Any opinions?
Cheers guys...Brendan
Last edited: