So I flip 10 coins... (re: limit of infinite? series)

In summary, the probability of ever stopping flipping coins after a certain number of flips is very small, and the probability of ever getting all heads is also small.
  • #1
nolxiii
40
5
Originally from the statistics forum but am told this is more of a calculus question.

I flip 10 coins, if any of the coins land on tails, all of the coins split into 10 new coins and I flip them all again. I keep doing this until a round where every single coin lands on heads. Can I expect to ever stop flipping coins as the number of flips goes to infinity? (and followup question: if so, on average, how many flips would it take me?)

I think we've managed to at least state the problem mathematically but am unsure how to go about deriving an answer.

From the other thread..

Stephen Tashi said:
Ok, that's understandable.The probability that you stop flipping after [itex] N [/itex] or fewer tosses
[itex] = \sum _{i=1}^n pr( \ stop\ after\ exactly\ i\ tosses) [/itex]
[itex] = \sum_{i=1}^n pr( \ toss\ heads\ with\ each\ of\ xy^{i-1}\ coins [/itex]
[itex] = \sum_{i=1}^n \big( \frac{1}{2} \big) ^{xy^{i-1}} [/itex]

Your ask the value of
[itex] \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}
{ \sum_{i=1}^n \big( \frac{1}{2} \big) ^{xy^{i-1}} } [/itex]
which is also denoted by [itex] \sum_{i=1}^\infty \big( \frac{1}{2} \big) ^{xy^{i-1}} [/itex]

The general problem is how to deal with series like [itex] \sum_{i=0}^\infty C^{D^{\ i}} [/itex]

If that question were asked in the Calculus section, someone would probably have some ideas!
 
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  • #2
If I understand you well, you want the probability of 10 heads in a row ? One in ##2^{10}## ?
 
  • #3
BvU said:
If I understand you well, you want the probability of 10 heads in a row ? One in ##2^{10}## ?

No that is just the first round, if the first time I flip any of the coins land on tails, then the next round I will flip 100 coins, and so on.
 
  • #4
I see. The number of coins multiplies by 10 every time you get a tail ? And all of them have to end up heads ?
So ##2^{-10}##, then ##
2^{-100}, \quad
2^{-1000}
##etc ?
 
  • #5
Correct.

I flip 10 coins, if any of the 10 are tails, then I go and flip 100 coins. If any of those 100 are tails then I flip 1000 coins. If during any iteration all of the coins I flip in that iteration land on heads then I stop and my task is complete.
 
  • #6
I suspect that I'm really asking if the series converges? And if it diverges I'd expect to get all heads an infinite number of times if I kept going, and if it converges then I'd expect to get all heads a finite (and possibly less than 1) number of times if I continued on forever?

Or is making the jump from the value of the series to a statement of probability unfounded/completely wrong?
 
Last edited:
  • #7
You stop after 1 flip with probability 2-10, after two flips with probability (1-2-10)*2-100 and so on. The total probability to stop converges to a value extremely close to 2-10=1/1024, and below 1/1000.
The probability that you ever get "all heads" is also small (below 1/1000, and dominated by the first flip).
 
  • #8
thank you!
 

FAQ: So I flip 10 coins... (re: limit of infinite? series)

1. What is the probability of getting all heads or all tails when flipping 10 coins?

The probability of getting all heads or all tails when flipping 10 coins is 1/1024 or approximately 0.001%. This is because there are 1024 possible outcomes when flipping 10 coins, and only 2 of those outcomes result in all heads or all tails.

2. How many possible outcomes are there when flipping 10 coins?

There are 1024 possible outcomes when flipping 10 coins. This is because for each coin, there are 2 possible outcomes (heads or tails), and when flipping multiple coins, the total number of possible outcomes is equal to 2 raised to the power of the number of coins.

3. What is the limit of infinite flips when calculating the probability of getting all heads or all tails?

The limit of infinite flips when calculating the probability of getting all heads or all tails is 0. This means that as the number of flips approaches infinity, the probability of getting all heads or all tails approaches 0. This is because the more coins you flip, the more likely it is that you will get a mixture of heads and tails rather than all of one or the other.

4. Is flipping 10 coins considered a finite or infinite series?

Flipping 10 coins is considered a finite series because there is a definite number of flips (10) and a finite number of possible outcomes (1024). In an infinite series, there would be an infinite number of flips and an infinite number of possible outcomes.

5. How does the number of coins flipped affect the probability of getting all heads or all tails?

The number of coins flipped directly affects the probability of getting all heads or all tails. As the number of coins increases, the probability decreases. This is because with more coins, there are more possible outcomes and a smaller chance of getting all heads or all tails. Conversely, with fewer coins, there are fewer possible outcomes and a higher chance of getting all heads or all tails.

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