Solve Lagrangian of System w/ 1 Degree of Freedom

In summary: If \omega =0 or in fact -\omega ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha =0 (so alpha could be worth 0), I reach that x(t)=\frac{-g\cos ( \alpha ) t^2}{2}+v_0 t+x_0. Basically the equation of motion of a free fall with gravity worth -g\cos ( \alpha ) instead of -g.
  • #1
fluidistic
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Homework Statement


A bead of mass m slides on a long straight wire which makes an angle alpha with, and rotates with constant angular velocity omega about, the upward vertical. Gravity acts vertically downard.
a)Choose an appropriate generalized coordinate and find the Lagrangian.
b)Write down the explicit Lagrange's equation of motion.


Homework Equations


L=T-V.


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm a bit confused. They mean only 1 generalized coordinate so this mean the system has only 1 degree of freedom. Ok.
The center of my coordinate system is the point where the wire and the vertical meet. I call x the distance from this point to the mass. This means [itex]V=mgx \cos \alpha[/itex].
I'm having a hard time in finding the velocity of the mass. Not only it has a circular motion with tangential speed [itex]\omega x \sin \alpha[/itex] but can also move along the wire with velocity... [itex]\dot x[/itex]? Adding up these 2 speeds and squaring them in order to get the kinetic energy would not match the given answer.
I'd like some help to get the kinetic energy of this particle/mass. Thank you.
 
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  • #2
Are you squaring then adding or adding then squaring?
 
  • #3
vela said:
Are you squaring then adding or adding then squaring?

Adding then squaring. Basically I say that [itex]v=\dot x +x \omega \sin \theta[/itex] which is addition of tangential speed + speed along the wire. Wait a minute, since these 2 velocities aren't making "a right angle" it means that the total velocity isn't the sum as I thought. The total velocity would be worth the square root of their sum, meaning that the kinetic energy is [itex]\frac{m}{2}(\dot x+\omega x \sin \theta )[/itex].
 
  • #4
The tangential speed and the speed along the wire do make a right angle with each other.
 
  • #5
I like Serena said:
The tangential speed and the speed along the wire do make a right angle with each other.

Whoops right, I didn't see this. I played with my fingers, now I see it. I reported this on my draft. I have made a right triangle. One side is [itex]\dot x[/itex], another one is [itex]\omega x \sin \alpha[/itex] and the hypotenuse is [itex]\sqrt {\dot x^2 + \omega ^2 x^2 \sin ^2 \alpha }[/itex]. This is the speed of the particle. I hope this is right now... thanks for pointing this out!
 
  • #6
Yes, it's right now. ;)
 
  • #7
a)[itex]L=\frac{m}{2} (\dot x ^2+\omega ^2 x ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha )-mgx \cos \alpha[/itex].
b)[itex]\ddot x -x\omega ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha+g\cos \alpha =0[/itex]. Apparently this result is correct.
I think I'm interested in solving this ODE.
I first solve the homogeneous DE, this gave me [itex]x_h(t)=Ae^{\omega x \sin \alpha}+Be^{-\omega x \sin \alpha}[/itex].
A particular solution is [itex]x_p(x)=c_3[/itex]. Plugging and chugging this into the DE gives [itex]c_3=\frac{g\cos \alpha }{\omega ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha}[/itex].
So the general solution to the ODE is [itex]x(t)=Ae^{\omega x \sin \alpha}+Be^{-\omega x \sin \alpha}+\frac{g\cos \alpha }{\omega ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha}[/itex].

Edit: Hmm I probably made an error. It looks like there's a term that blows up if omega is worth 0... cannot be right...
 
  • #8
You want t in the exponents, not x. The ##\omega=0## case needs to be handled separately by setting it to 0 in the original DE and then solving it. You can't set it to 0 at the end because you assumed it wasn't 0 while solving the problem.
 
  • #9
vela said:
You want t in the exponents, not x. The ##\omega=0## case needs to be handled separately by setting it to 0 in the original DE and then solving it. You can't set it to 0 at the end because you assumed it wasn't 0 while solving the problem.

Oh I see. I've made the exact same mistake in a previous exercise... I will try to be more careful in future.
 
  • #10
If [itex]\omega =0[/itex] or in fact [itex]-\omega ^2 \sin ^2 \alpha =0[/itex] (so alpha could be worth 0), I reach that [itex]x(t)=\frac{-g\cos ( \alpha ) t^2}{2}+v_0 t+x_0[/itex]. Basically the equation of motion of a free fall with gravity worth [itex]-g\cos ( \alpha )[/itex] instead of [itex]-g[/itex]. I can consider alpha to be worth 0 and I reach a common free fall equation which makes sense.
 

Related to Solve Lagrangian of System w/ 1 Degree of Freedom

What is the Lagrangian of a system with 1 degree of freedom?

The Lagrangian of a system with 1 degree of freedom is a mathematical function that represents the total kinetic and potential energy of the system. It is often used in classical mechanics to describe the dynamics of a single particle or a simple mechanical system.

How is the Lagrangian of a system with 1 degree of freedom calculated?

The Lagrangian is calculated by subtracting the potential energy from the kinetic energy of the system. In the case of a single particle, the kinetic energy is equal to one-half of the mass times the square of the velocity, while the potential energy is dependent on the position and any external forces acting on the particle.

What is the significance of the Lagrangian in classical mechanics?

The Lagrangian is significant in classical mechanics because it allows for a more elegant and concise way of describing the dynamics of a system compared to Newton's laws of motion. It also takes into account the principle of least action, which states that the path taken by a system between two points is the one that minimizes the action, or the difference between the kinetic and potential energies.

How does the Lagrangian of a system with 1 degree of freedom relate to the equations of motion?

The Lagrangian of a system with 1 degree of freedom is used to derive the equations of motion, which describe the behavior of the system over time. This is done through the use of the Euler-Lagrange equations, which are a set of differential equations that relate the Lagrangian to the system's coordinates and their respective velocities.

Can the Lagrangian be used to solve systems with more than 1 degree of freedom?

Yes, the Lagrangian can be used to solve systems with multiple degrees of freedom. In these cases, the Lagrangian function becomes a function of multiple variables, and the Euler-Lagrange equations become a set of coupled differential equations. This allows for a more general and powerful approach to solving complex systems in classical mechanics.

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