- #1
Caveman11
- 11
- 0
Hi all,
I am having a problem which is something that I can't think what the reason is. I may well be making a very elementary mistake.
Here it is:
In UFM in order to write the force on the cantilever as a function of the tip surface separation then we must take into account the sample oscillations.
The sample oscillations are given by: \begin{equation}Acos(\omega t)\end{equation} where A is the oscillation amplitude.
By subtracting this from the tip sample z displacement we obtain the time dependant separation.
\begin{equation}
z -Acos(\omega t)
\end{equation}
Then integrating over one whole oscillation period we obtain
\begin{equation}
F=\int_{0}^{T}F(z -Acos(\omega t)) dt
\end{equation}
However this is where my problem is. In all literature I have read there is a factor of \begin{equation}\frac{1}{2\pi}\end{equation} infront of the integral.
But I can't think where is has come from?
Any response you have is greatly appreciated.
Thanks
I am having a problem which is something that I can't think what the reason is. I may well be making a very elementary mistake.
Here it is:
In UFM in order to write the force on the cantilever as a function of the tip surface separation then we must take into account the sample oscillations.
The sample oscillations are given by: \begin{equation}Acos(\omega t)\end{equation} where A is the oscillation amplitude.
By subtracting this from the tip sample z displacement we obtain the time dependant separation.
\begin{equation}
z -Acos(\omega t)
\end{equation}
Then integrating over one whole oscillation period we obtain
\begin{equation}
F=\int_{0}^{T}F(z -Acos(\omega t)) dt
\end{equation}
However this is where my problem is. In all literature I have read there is a factor of \begin{equation}\frac{1}{2\pi}\end{equation} infront of the integral.
But I can't think where is has come from?
Any response you have is greatly appreciated.
Thanks