- #1
mr_whisk
- 7
- 0
Hi all,
Sorry if this question is not very challenging, but I am driving myself to confusion...
I happily derived the eigen functions for an infinite square well spanning from 0 to L and found them to be:
...in agreement with wikipedia.
However my course notes derive solutions for an inf sq well between -a and +a.
Surely L=2a, no?
In the notes n=1,3,5... produces cosine solutions and n=2,4,6... produce sine solutions.
Why is there now cosine solutions?
Please help, I'm going crazy :)
Sorry if this question is not very challenging, but I am driving myself to confusion...
I happily derived the eigen functions for an infinite square well spanning from 0 to L and found them to be:
...in agreement with wikipedia.
However my course notes derive solutions for an inf sq well between -a and +a.
Surely L=2a, no?
In the notes n=1,3,5... produces cosine solutions and n=2,4,6... produce sine solutions.
Why is there now cosine solutions?
Please help, I'm going crazy :)