- #1
latentcorpse
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Hi I'm trying Q1 of this paper:
http://www.maths.cam.ac.uk/postgrad/mathiii/pastpapers/2005/Paper60.pdf
and have got to the bit where I need to show that [itex]\xi_{b;ca}=-R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d[/itex]
Now I know that [itex]R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d=R_{bcad} \xi^d = R_{adbc} \xi^d = \nabla_b \nabla_c \xi_a - \nabla_c \nabla_b \xi_a[/itex]
where I got that last equality by rearranging the Ricci identity [itex]\nabla_c \nabla_d Z^a - \nabla_d \nabla_c Z^a = R^a{}_{bcd}Z^b[/itex]
So then we have [itex]-R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d = \nabla_c \nabla_b \xi_a - \nabla_b \nabla_c \xi_a = -\nabla_c \nabla_a \xi_b + \nabla_b \nabla_a \xi_c[/itex]
where I used the Killing property on the first term to get a [itex]\xi_b[/itex] term like we are looking for but I can't quite manipulate it into the final answer. Can anybody see what I am doing wrong?And then in the last bit, can somebody help me to show that if the Killing vector and the first derivative vanish at a point then they vanish everywhere?
And what about the final part about how many linearly independent Killing vectors can there be? My notes say that a n dimensional spacetime is maximally symmetric if there exist [itex]\frac{n(n+1)}{2}[/itex] linearly independent Killing vectors. But I don't actually know whether this is relevant to the question at hand or not?
Thanks.
http://www.maths.cam.ac.uk/postgrad/mathiii/pastpapers/2005/Paper60.pdf
and have got to the bit where I need to show that [itex]\xi_{b;ca}=-R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d[/itex]
Now I know that [itex]R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d=R_{bcad} \xi^d = R_{adbc} \xi^d = \nabla_b \nabla_c \xi_a - \nabla_c \nabla_b \xi_a[/itex]
where I got that last equality by rearranging the Ricci identity [itex]\nabla_c \nabla_d Z^a - \nabla_d \nabla_c Z^a = R^a{}_{bcd}Z^b[/itex]
So then we have [itex]-R_{bca}{}^d \xi_d = \nabla_c \nabla_b \xi_a - \nabla_b \nabla_c \xi_a = -\nabla_c \nabla_a \xi_b + \nabla_b \nabla_a \xi_c[/itex]
where I used the Killing property on the first term to get a [itex]\xi_b[/itex] term like we are looking for but I can't quite manipulate it into the final answer. Can anybody see what I am doing wrong?And then in the last bit, can somebody help me to show that if the Killing vector and the first derivative vanish at a point then they vanish everywhere?
And what about the final part about how many linearly independent Killing vectors can there be? My notes say that a n dimensional spacetime is maximally symmetric if there exist [itex]\frac{n(n+1)}{2}[/itex] linearly independent Killing vectors. But I don't actually know whether this is relevant to the question at hand or not?
Thanks.
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