- #1
Asmodeus
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I'm in Mathematical Logic course. I just wanted to tie a few loose ends.
In our logic text, ("A Friendly Introduction to Mathematical Logic" -C. Leary) he uses the Henkin axioms to prove Godel's Completeness theorem. I understand the whole proof, except the last part that requires equivalence classes. Can anyone spell this out for me.
Further, can someone explain the self-reference lemma to me? For instance, our text uses v=4. Why is this so? Is it because 4 = 2^2, which is not a godel number?
What is the precise difference between the completeness in the first sense, and (in)completeness in the second sense?
Any explanations or good links would be greatly appreciated.
In our logic text, ("A Friendly Introduction to Mathematical Logic" -C. Leary) he uses the Henkin axioms to prove Godel's Completeness theorem. I understand the whole proof, except the last part that requires equivalence classes. Can anyone spell this out for me.
Further, can someone explain the self-reference lemma to me? For instance, our text uses v=4. Why is this so? Is it because 4 = 2^2, which is not a godel number?
What is the precise difference between the completeness in the first sense, and (in)completeness in the second sense?
Any explanations or good links would be greatly appreciated.