- #1
esorolla
- 20
- 0
Hello everybody.
I have to admit that I feel quite troubled since long time, actually since I read the solution of a problem that I don't understand and whose wording I immediately pass to briefly relate you. I guess that many of you have heard about the Faraday's disk, that is, a spinning metallic disk subject to an external magnetic field where a current is produced by the Lorent's force (or at least this is a way to explain the presence of the current). The rim of the disk is connected to the center of the disk by a wire of negligible resistance, closing the loop and establishing the circuit.
However, my problem is quite troubling because I was enjoying of the books that I love to read where the authors, J. M Lévy-Leblond and André Butoli, propose the same problem assuming no magnetic field at all. The puzzle that they propose asks whether there will be any current, and in my naive ignorance I was convinced that the answer was negative. My surprise was huge when I saw that the answer provided by the authors was that there would be some current, though it would be negligible because the centrifugal force would be balanced with the small potential difference produced between the rime of the disk (where the electrons are supposed to be gathered by the centrifugal force) and the center of the disk (where a net positive charge remained).
I have to admit that I proposed the puzzle to some people in my lab and only one girl dared to think about this problem, but surprisingly for me, she replied almost immediately that, indeed, there would be a current, though she didn't say anything about how big or small it would be. My problem in the beginning was that I expected that the electric field produced by the small potential difference between the rim and the center of the disk would not produce any current since the attraction to the center of the disk is produced through the disk as well as through the wire that is supposed to close the circuit connecting the rim to the axis of rotation of the bar which makes the disk spin. I expected that there would be a position of equilibrium where the centrifugal force (the inertia of the electrons to move away from the center) and the electrical attraction towards the center of the disk through the wire would compensate the attraction towards the disk through the disk itself. I imagined that it would be as if I was the electron pulled my left arm on one side and my right arm from the other. If the centrifugal force plus the attraction trhough the wire are bigger than the attraction to the center of the disk through the disk itself, there would be a net current, however, I expect that the attraction to the center would depend on the distance between the electrons and the distance. Thus, I expected an equilibrium position.
Nevertheless, I guess that this reasoning has an error, because by the same reasonings I would expect that in the case of the Faraday's disk, there couldn't be any current, and I know that it exists. So I'm lost. On the one hand I know that Faraday's disk works and I don't understand why, and on the other hand I respect a lot the word of Lévy-Leblond, but I don't see how there might be current if no magnetic field exists. Actually many people in many forums talking about Feynmann's and Faraday's paradoxes comment that without magnetic field there is no current. And the worst thing is that my reasoning to understand why there can't be current is non-valid, since it would invalidate the possibility that in case of the existence of magnetic field the current existed!
I hope that I didn't make it too much complicated. Do you think that Lévy-Leblond is wrong or the fact that my explanation is non-valid doesn't invalidate the assertion that in the Faraday's disk, if no magnetic field exists, there is no current?
Thank you very much if you arrived to the end and good summer.
Regards
I have to admit that I feel quite troubled since long time, actually since I read the solution of a problem that I don't understand and whose wording I immediately pass to briefly relate you. I guess that many of you have heard about the Faraday's disk, that is, a spinning metallic disk subject to an external magnetic field where a current is produced by the Lorent's force (or at least this is a way to explain the presence of the current). The rim of the disk is connected to the center of the disk by a wire of negligible resistance, closing the loop and establishing the circuit.
However, my problem is quite troubling because I was enjoying of the books that I love to read where the authors, J. M Lévy-Leblond and André Butoli, propose the same problem assuming no magnetic field at all. The puzzle that they propose asks whether there will be any current, and in my naive ignorance I was convinced that the answer was negative. My surprise was huge when I saw that the answer provided by the authors was that there would be some current, though it would be negligible because the centrifugal force would be balanced with the small potential difference produced between the rime of the disk (where the electrons are supposed to be gathered by the centrifugal force) and the center of the disk (where a net positive charge remained).
I have to admit that I proposed the puzzle to some people in my lab and only one girl dared to think about this problem, but surprisingly for me, she replied almost immediately that, indeed, there would be a current, though she didn't say anything about how big or small it would be. My problem in the beginning was that I expected that the electric field produced by the small potential difference between the rim and the center of the disk would not produce any current since the attraction to the center of the disk is produced through the disk as well as through the wire that is supposed to close the circuit connecting the rim to the axis of rotation of the bar which makes the disk spin. I expected that there would be a position of equilibrium where the centrifugal force (the inertia of the electrons to move away from the center) and the electrical attraction towards the center of the disk through the wire would compensate the attraction towards the disk through the disk itself. I imagined that it would be as if I was the electron pulled my left arm on one side and my right arm from the other. If the centrifugal force plus the attraction trhough the wire are bigger than the attraction to the center of the disk through the disk itself, there would be a net current, however, I expect that the attraction to the center would depend on the distance between the electrons and the distance. Thus, I expected an equilibrium position.
Nevertheless, I guess that this reasoning has an error, because by the same reasonings I would expect that in the case of the Faraday's disk, there couldn't be any current, and I know that it exists. So I'm lost. On the one hand I know that Faraday's disk works and I don't understand why, and on the other hand I respect a lot the word of Lévy-Leblond, but I don't see how there might be current if no magnetic field exists. Actually many people in many forums talking about Feynmann's and Faraday's paradoxes comment that without magnetic field there is no current. And the worst thing is that my reasoning to understand why there can't be current is non-valid, since it would invalidate the possibility that in case of the existence of magnetic field the current existed!
I hope that I didn't make it too much complicated. Do you think that Lévy-Leblond is wrong or the fact that my explanation is non-valid doesn't invalidate the assertion that in the Faraday's disk, if no magnetic field exists, there is no current?
Thank you very much if you arrived to the end and good summer.
Regards
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