- #1
Lapidus
- 344
- 12
Trivial question...
How exactly does the minus sign arise in eq. 43.10? The sentence below states because the functional derivative goes through one spinor, but I can't see how that works...
book is online here http://www.physics.ucsb.edu/~mark/ms-qft-DRAFT.pdf
equation 43.10 is on pdf page 273
thank you
How exactly does the minus sign arise in eq. 43.10? The sentence below states because the functional derivative goes through one spinor, but I can't see how that works...
book is online here http://www.physics.ucsb.edu/~mark/ms-qft-DRAFT.pdf
equation 43.10 is on pdf page 273
thank you