- #1
caffeinemachine
Gold Member
MHB
- 816
- 15
On this page Turán's theorem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopediaI found that:
"A strengthened form of Mantel's theorem states that any graph with at least $n^2/4$ edges must either be a complete bipartite graph $K_{n/2,n/2}$ or it must be pancyclic, i.e, not only does it contain a triangle, it must also contain cycles of all other possible lengths up to the number of vertices."
Now a special case of this is:
A non-bipartite graph $G$ with $|E(G)|\geq n^2/4$, where $n=|V(G)|$, has a Hamiltonian Cycle.
But if we consider the $10$ vertex graph $G$ which has a $9$-clique and an isolated vertex then we see that $|E(G)|=36>10^2/4$ but $G$ doesn't have a Hamiltonian cycle.
What has gone wrong here? What am I missing?
"A strengthened form of Mantel's theorem states that any graph with at least $n^2/4$ edges must either be a complete bipartite graph $K_{n/2,n/2}$ or it must be pancyclic, i.e, not only does it contain a triangle, it must also contain cycles of all other possible lengths up to the number of vertices."
Now a special case of this is:
A non-bipartite graph $G$ with $|E(G)|\geq n^2/4$, where $n=|V(G)|$, has a Hamiltonian Cycle.
But if we consider the $10$ vertex graph $G$ which has a $9$-clique and an isolated vertex then we see that $|E(G)|=36>10^2/4$ but $G$ doesn't have a Hamiltonian cycle.
What has gone wrong here? What am I missing?