- #1
bloynoys
- 25
- 0
We are to prove sum(n)(I=1)(k(I))*(x(I)) = 1
Where (k(I))= (x(I)-x(bar))/(sum(n)(j=1)(x(j)-x(bar))^2
Attempt at solution:
I rearranged it to equal:
(1/(sum(n)(j=1)(x(j)-x(bar))^2))*(sum(n)(I=1)(x(I)-x(bar))*x(I))
I don't really know how to proceed. Sorry for the formatting issues, I am on mobile currently.
Where (k(I))= (x(I)-x(bar))/(sum(n)(j=1)(x(j)-x(bar))^2
Attempt at solution:
I rearranged it to equal:
(1/(sum(n)(j=1)(x(j)-x(bar))^2))*(sum(n)(I=1)(x(I)-x(bar))*x(I))
I don't really know how to proceed. Sorry for the formatting issues, I am on mobile currently.