- #1
LarryS
Gold Member
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Richard Feynman describes a “modified Stern-Gerlach” experiment in which the apparatus consists of 3 magnets in a row, along the path of the beam. The first magnet is polarity “South on top, North on bottom”. The second magnet is twice as long as the first and of opposite polarity. The third magnet is identical to the first. He then states that a beam consisting of, say, spin-one particles will be split into 3 beams when it passes the first magnet. The second magnet, being of opposite polarity will force the 3 beams back together again. And, the third magnet will continue to bring the 3 beams back together so that just one beam exists the apparatus.
Finally my question: If the third magnet is identical to the first magnet then why does it not also split the beam into 3 beams again?
Thanks in advance.
Finally my question: If the third magnet is identical to the first magnet then why does it not also split the beam into 3 beams again?
Thanks in advance.