- #1
jessicaw
- 56
- 0
Originally, it is derived from the weight of a confuguration,i.e. how electrons are distributied in different energy level:n=gexp(a+be)
It gives the number of electrons in each energy level.However suddenly it can be apply to a cloud of gas?? By dividing a box of gas into different energy and see how many gas atoms in each energy. My professor said it is pseudo energy level in phase space.
So now an atom becomes a box of gas? Each energy level of atom becomes a division of a cloud of gas? Or am i missing anything(as i think the all gas atoms in the cloud of gas has the same energy)? I cannot find any rigorous proof of this analogy.
Help explaining this. My professor just runs away after each lecture so i do not have chance to ask her and we are all afraid of her. Also she does not use textbook and she teaches MB stat, boseeinstein stat, fermi dirac stat without any introduction on what does the distribution mean(to atom/ to gas),just a lot of equations and derivations and i do not know what to do now excpet memorizing.
It gives the number of electrons in each energy level.However suddenly it can be apply to a cloud of gas?? By dividing a box of gas into different energy and see how many gas atoms in each energy. My professor said it is pseudo energy level in phase space.
So now an atom becomes a box of gas? Each energy level of atom becomes a division of a cloud of gas? Or am i missing anything(as i think the all gas atoms in the cloud of gas has the same energy)? I cannot find any rigorous proof of this analogy.
Help explaining this. My professor just runs away after each lecture so i do not have chance to ask her and we are all afraid of her. Also she does not use textbook and she teaches MB stat, boseeinstein stat, fermi dirac stat without any introduction on what does the distribution mean(to atom/ to gas),just a lot of equations and derivations and i do not know what to do now excpet memorizing.
Last edited: