- #1
Johnls
- 11
- 0
Faraday's law talks about the change in the flux through a loop, but I never see how people take into account the change in the flux due to Faraday's law itself and I am wondering if that leads to a contradiction.
For example when calculating the current through a physical loop with area A and resistance R in a uniform field that changes with time I see people do this:
flux = B*A (lets assume that the area vetor is parallel to the field) emf = A* d B dt
I = emf / R = (A/R) * d B dt
but this current immediately (at least in our context) produces a magnetic field, so the flux is not B*A, and because of this we should get a different current in the first place.
So what is going on here?
For example when calculating the current through a physical loop with area A and resistance R in a uniform field that changes with time I see people do this:
flux = B*A (lets assume that the area vetor is parallel to the field) emf = A* d B dt
I = emf / R = (A/R) * d B dt
but this current immediately (at least in our context) produces a magnetic field, so the flux is not B*A, and because of this we should get a different current in the first place.
So what is going on here?