- #1
PhysicsHelp12
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You know when a definition is given in terms of z=f(x,y) like the surface integral
and its assmed to apply to y=f(x,z)and x=f(y,z) too ...
Why is this?
I know theyre just variables ...but since x y and z mean something specifically wrt the
coordinate system
Would it be trivial to say By Symmetry, x=f(y,z) and y=f(x,z) applies too ?
which way is better to think about it?
and its assmed to apply to y=f(x,z)and x=f(y,z) too ...
Why is this?
I know theyre just variables ...but since x y and z mean something specifically wrt the
coordinate system
Would it be trivial to say By Symmetry, x=f(y,z) and y=f(x,z) applies too ?
which way is better to think about it?