Surjectivity of a Three-Dimensional Function with Non-Negative Real Inputs

In summary, the function \Phi : \Re^{+} \diamond \Re \diamond \Re \rightarrow \Re^{3} (r,\varphi,\theta) \rightarrow (r cos\varphi sin\theta, r sin\varphi sin\theta, r cos\theta) is surjective because for every point in \Re^{3}, there exists a set of coordinates that maps to it. However, it is not one-to-one and would require redefining the range in order to make it so. Additionally, there are certain points, such as the origin, that do not have a unique set of coordinates.
  • #1
atomqwerty
94
0
Hello,

is this function surjective?

[tex]\Phi : \Re^{+} \diamond \Re \diamond \Re \rightarrow \Re^{3}
(r,\varphi,\theta) \rightarrow (r cos\varphi sin\theta, r sin\varphi sin\theta, r cos\theta)[/tex]

PS Diamond means X (cross)
 
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  • #2
It is not surjective.
 
  • #3
dimitri151 said:
It is not surjective.

why?

thanx
 
  • #4
I mean it is surjective.
 
  • #5
It is surjective, because for every a = (x, y, z) in R^3 you can find b = (r, theta, phi) mapped to a by your function. Namely,

r = sqrt (x^2 + y^2 + z^2)

theta = arctan (sqrt(x^2 + y^2) / z)

phi = arctan(y / x)

(this is "almost true", in the sense that you have to be careful with the arctan).
 
  • #6
Petr Mugver said:
It is surjective, because for every a = (x, y, z) in R^3 you can find b = (r, theta, phi) mapped to a by your function. Namely,

r = sqrt (x^2 + y^2 + z^2)

theta = arctan (sqrt(x^2 + y^2) / z)

phi = arctan(y / x)

(this is "almost true", in the sense that you have to be careful with the arctan).

Ok, so that implies x != 0 and z!=0 (!= means not equal to), that implies at the same time

rcosT = 0
rcosPsinT=0

(T=theta, P=Phi)

The first leads us to r=0 or T=(2n+1)Pi/2, with n=1,2,3,...
Second leads moreover to P=(2n+1)Pi/2, with n=1,2,3,... (because SinT == +-1)

so we have to redefine the range of the function from [R+ x R x R] to [R+ x (0,Pi/2) x (0,Pi/2)] OR keep the original range but rstricting to [R+ x R- {(2n+1)Pi/2} x R- {(2n+1)Pi/2}]

Is this correct?

thank
 
  • #7
aren't these just the spherical coordinate map? hence clearly surjective by the geometry of the situation. i.e. every point in space does have spherical coordinates.
 
  • #8
mathwonk said:
aren't these just the spherical coordinate map? hence clearly surjective by the geometry of the situation. i.e. every point in space does have spherical coordinates.

Yes, it is, but what I'm saying is that we would need to redefine the range RxRxR to Rx[0,2Pi)x[0,Pi) so the coordinates can be one to one.
 
  • #9
atomqwerty said:
Yes, it is, but what I'm saying is that we would need to redefine the range RxRxR to Rx[0,2Pi)x[0,Pi) so the coordinates can be one to one.

Well, this was not your initial question. Your map is surjective but not one to one... consider the origin, or the north and south poles for example. In general, you need several "sheets" or "charts" in the language of manifolds.
 
  • #10
Forgive me if I am missing something, but is there anything mapping to (0,0,0)?
 
  • #11
r=0.
 
  • #12
I was under the impression that [tex] \Re^{+} [/tex] denoted the positive reals and not the non-negative reals.
 
  • #13
For some reason I read that as non-negative reals. If you can't have r=0 then you can't get the right side to equal (0,0,0).
 
  • #14
Z+ is the non-negative integers so I read R+ as the non-negative reals so r=0 is allowed.
 

FAQ: Surjectivity of a Three-Dimensional Function with Non-Negative Real Inputs

What does it mean for a function to be surjective?

A function is surjective if every element in the range is mapped to by at least one element in the domain. This means that there are no elements in the range that are not mapped to by the function.

How can I tell if a function is surjective?

To determine if a function is surjective, you can look at the range of the function and see if every element in the range is mapped to by at least one element in the domain. Alternatively, you can use the horizontal line test, where you draw horizontal lines through the graph of the function and see if they intersect the graph more than once.

What is the difference between surjective and injective functions?

A surjective function is one where every element in the range is mapped to by at least one element in the domain. An injective function is one where every element in the domain is mapped to by at most one element in the range. In other words, a surjective function has no elements in the range that are not mapped to, while an injective function has no elements in the domain that are mapped to by more than one element in the range.

Can a function be both surjective and injective?

Yes, a function can be both surjective and injective. This type of function is called a bijection, and it means that every element in the range is mapped to by exactly one element in the domain.

How can I prove that a function is surjective?

To prove that a function is surjective, you can use the definition of surjectivity and show that every element in the range is mapped to by at least one element in the domain. This can be done through direct proof, where you show that each element in the range has at least one preimage in the domain, or by contradiction, where you assume there is an element in the range without a preimage in the domain and show that it leads to a contradiction.

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