- #36
Aurelius120
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@TSny Can you also check my attempt at Option B in post 30? Thank You
I do not understand what you are doing there. For each disc you have a rotation about the z axis, but you need toAurelius120 said:About axis perpendicular to axle:
Velocity of COM of 1st wheel about z-axis=##\dfrac{\omega}{5} l \cos\theta = \omega_1×\dfrac{4l}{5}##
Velocity of COM of 2nd wheel about z-axis= ##\omega_2×\dfrac{l}{5}= \dfrac{\omega}{5} × 2l \cos \theta##
I was going like thisharuspex said:I do not understand what you are doing there. For each disc you have a rotation about the z axis, but you need to
- resolve that into a rotation about the axle of the cone and and a perpendicular rotation
- find the moment of inertia of the disc about axes parallel to those through the mass centre of the assembly.
You need to include the component of the precessional angular velocity along the axle. That is, the moment of inertia about the axle should be multiplied by the component of the net angular velocity along the axle. See post #26 of @haruspex .Aurelius120 said:Plz Check this
This is my attempt at Option-B
About axle :
Angular Momentum: ##L_1=I\omega= \dfrac{17ma^2\omega}{2}##
I get a bit confused with the meaning of your subscripts "1" and "2".Aurelius120 said:About axis perpendicular to axle:
Velocity of COM of 1st wheel about z-axis=##\dfrac{\omega}{5} l \cos\theta = \omega_1×\dfrac{4l}{5}##
Velocity of COM of 2nd wheel about z-axis= ##\omega_2×\dfrac{l}{5}= \dfrac{\omega}{5} × 2l \cos \theta##
Angular Momentum: ##L_2=I_1\omega_1 - I_2\omega_2##
So $$L_1=\frac{17ma^2\omega}{2}$$
$$L_2=\left(\dfrac{ma^2}{4}+\dfrac{16ml^2}{25}\right)\omega_1-\left(\dfrac{4m(2a)^2}{4}+\dfrac{4ml^2}{25}\right)\omega_2$$
Ok.Aurelius120 said:$$L_{COM}=\sqrt{L_1^2+L_2^2}$$
That represents the angular velocity of wheels 1 and 2 about the axis perpendicular to axle.TSny said:I get a bit confused with the meaning of your subscripts "1" and "2".
The wheels are rotating about z-axis in say ACW sense.TSny said:In your expression for ##L_2##, I don't understand why you distinguish between ##\omega _1## and ##\omega_2##. Also, why the subtraction?
What is confusing is that angular velocity of both wheels about COM perpendicilar to z-axis can't be same, right?TSny said:For ##L_2## you need to find the total moment of inertia about the perpendicular axis through the center of mass and multiply by the component of the net angular velocity along this axis.
Consider a dumbbell rotating about the axis as shown. Both balls have the same angular velocity ##\omega## in the same direction. The linear velocities of the two balls will be in opposite directions with different magnitudes.Aurelius120 said:The wheels are rotating about z-axis in say ACW sense.
About an axis passing in between the wheels, but perpendicular to axle the rotation of wheels will be in opposite sense to each other, right?
What is confusing is that angular velocity of both wheels about COM perpendicilar to z-axis can't be same, right?
But what if the balls were rotating about an outside axis. Both will have same direction of linear velocity. However when the that system is analysed about an axis passing in-between the balls, the linear velocities being kn the same direction will make angular velocity in opposite directions.TSny said:Consider a dumbbell rotating about the axis as shown. Both balls have the same angular velocity ##\omega## in the same direction. The linear velocities of the two balls will be in opposite directions with different magnitudes.
View attachment 347426
Aurelius120 said:But what if the balls were rotating about an outside axis. Both will have same direction of linear velocity. However when the that system is analysed about an axis passing in-between the balls, the linear velocities being kn the same direction will make angular velocity in opposite directions.
But doesn't that change the system completely?TSny said:View attachment 347427
Suppose the dumbbell rotates about an "outside" axis. Both balls will have the same angular speed ##\omega##. Their linear velocities will be in the same direction (with different magnitudes). Also, their angular velocities will be in the same direction (counter-clockwise as seen from above).
For the inside axis, the balls have the same counter-clockwise angular velocity as seen from above. If one ball makes 5 revolutions per second, so does the other ball. The linear velocities are now opposite in direction and have different magnitudes.
View attachment 347429
But the angular momenta of the COMs are inadequate. They are not point masses.Aurelius120 said:I was going like this
Since linear velocity is same irrespective of axis
I equated the product of angular velocity and perpendicular distance from axis in each case
As in
$$\omega_z × r_z= \omega_{COM}×r_{COM}$$
Yes thank you.haruspex said:@TSny has said the same in algebra. Having it expressed in two ways should help.
So this formula failed.haruspex said:They are not point masses
TSny said:You need to calculate Ip. This is similar to the dumbbell.
It is a valid way of decomposing a rotational velocity vector.Aurelius120 said:why are you considering it to be rotating around the axis through COM and perpendicular to axle?
Thanksharuspex said:It is a valid way of decomposing a rotational velocity vector.
I admit it is less obvious than with linear motion. Displacements can be easily shown to add vectorially, and it therefore works for linear velocities and accelerations by differentiation wrt time. But it does not work for rotations through non-infinitesimal angles: the order of two such rotations matters. But again, it does work for infinitesimal angles, so it also works for angular velocities and accelerations.
They would have equal radii?? It may be a good idea just to look at the 'static' geometry first; you may have given yourself a problem with rotational matters by not looking at the question better (e.g. the figid fixing on the rod dictates what will happen.)Aurelius120 said:Homework Statement: Two thin circular discs are rigidly fixed by a massless rigid rod passing through centers and laid on on a firm flat surface and set rolling without slipping
Relevant Equations: $$\vec L=\vec r\times m\vec v$$
$$\vec L= I\vec \omega$$
Why can't the wheels be perpendicular to the surface with an axle connecting their centers
What would make it turn? (Or, rotate about what axis?)Aurelius120 said:Will a cone rotate on a frictionless surface?
In the 3rd post I explained the arrangement more.sophiecentaur said:They would have equal radii?? It may be a good idea just to look at the 'static' geometry first; you may have given yourself a problem with rotational matters by not looking at the question better (e.g. the figid fixing on the rod dictates what will happen.)
Isn't static friction not necessary for rolling? I remember reading (on stackexchange maybe) that when a translating object is placed on a surface kinetic friction causes it to roll after which friction doesn't have a role in the rotation or translation.sophiecentaur said:What would make it turn? (Or, rotate about what axis?)
Except unfortunately I haven't been taught what a tensor is. All I know is they are half scalar and half vector or something in betweensophiecentaur said:@Orodruin has pointed you in the 'clever clogs' direction (post #32) which would sort out your questions probably in one go, I think.
A sort of ball joint with splines at the centre of each disc? I think that would imply the need for a constant velocity joint, as in car steering arrangements.Aurelius120 said:I meant keep the discs perpendicular to the surface and connect their centers via a rod which is not horizontal.
After a transitional period, at startup, there may be lateral slip which will involve energy loss ( I think). That's quite a step-up in difficulty imo. The distinction between static and kinetic frictionAurelius120 said:when a translating object is placed on a surface kinetic friction
And if COM is the fixed point, the angular momentum is the angular momentum in the COM instantaneous rest frame.Orodruin said:The rotation about the CoM is the (instantaneous) motion in the CoM instantaneous rest frame. The separation into CoM angular momentum and angular momentum due to the CoM motion is simply a convenient way of doing the bookkeeping of the angular momentum as the terms separate.
Consider a system of rigidly connected masses ##m_i## with positions ##\vec x_i## and velocities ##\vec v_i## relative to a fixed point of the rotation with angular velocity ##\vec \omega##. By assumption of the rigidity:
$$
\vec v_i = \vec\omega \times \vec x_i
$$
and so the total angular momentum relative to the fixed point is
$$
\vec L = \sum_i m_i \vec x_i \times (\vec \omega \times \vec x_i)
= \sum_i m_i [r_i^2 \vec \omega - (\vec\omega\cdot \vec x_i)\vec x_i]
$$
where ##r_i## is the magnitude of ##\vec x_i##. This is the usual expression involving what is essentially the definition of the moment of inertia relative to the fixed point.
We can now rewrite this by introducing a reference displacement ##\vec x_0## and the instantaneous rigid velocity ##\vec v_0 = \vec\omega \times \vec x_0## of that point. We introduce ##\vec x_i = \vec y_i + \vec x_0## and ##\vec v_i = \vec u_i + \vec v_0##, where ##\vec y_i## and ##\vec u_i## are the position and velocity of mass ##i## relative to the reference displacement and velocity.
The angular momentum about the fixed point now takes the form
$$
\vec L = \sum_i m_i (\vec y_i + \vec x_0)\times (\vec \omega \times \vec y_i + \vec v_0)
= \sum_i m_i[R_i^2 \vec \omega - (\vec y_i\cdot \vec\omega)\vec y_i]
+ M \vec x_0 \times \vec v_0
+ \sum_i m_i [\vec x_0 \times (\vec\omega \times \vec y_i) + \vec y_i \times \vec v_0]
$$
with ##R_i## the magnitude of ##\vec y_i## and ##M = \sum_i m_i## (ie, the total mass). The first term here is now the angular momentum of the system relative to the reference displacement in the instantaneous rest frame of the reference displacement. The second term is the angular momentum of a single particle of mass ##M## at the reference displacement relative to the original fixed point. The last term is quite messy.
However, if you take the CoM as the reference displacement, then ##\sum_i m_i \vec y_i = 0## by definition and the last two terms vanish. Voilà, you have reexpressed the total angular momentum relative to the fixed point as the angular momentum relative to the CoM (in the CoM instantaneous rest frame) plus the angular momentum of a point mass at the CoM moving at the CoM
Orodruin said:The advantage over the first expression is that the moment of inertia relative to the CoM is often much easier to express in terms of standard moments of inertia that have already been computed. Many times simplifying computation.
Sounds like a great book. Is it for after, before or while engineering?Orodruin said:Iirc, this is also covered in some detail in chapter 10 of my book.
It is a mathematical methods textbook. Chapter 10 discusses some applications of the previous chapters - in this case vector algebra/analysis. Would probably be considered late undergrad level.Aurelius120 said:Is it for after, before or while engineering?
It is ##I\omega## (relative to the com) up to the second part.Aurelius120 said:@Orodruin
$$\vec L = \sum_i m_i (\vec y_i + \vec x_0)\times (\vec \omega \times \vec y_i + \vec v_0)$$ $$= \sum_i m_i[R_i^2 \vec \omega - (\vec y_i\cdot \vec\omega)\vec y_i]+ M \vec x_0 \times \vec v_0+ \sum_i m_i [\vec x_0 \times (\vec\omega \times \vec y_i) + \vec y_i \times \vec v_0]$$
In the first term, representing angular momentum about instantaneous COM rest frame,
The first part ##\sum_i m_iR_i^2 \vec \omega## is essentially ##I\omega##
It is the rest of ##I\omega##.Aurelius120 said:What happens to the second part? Does it cancel out ?
Order of rotation (as in CW or ACW?) doesn't matter for infinitesimal angles?haruspex said:It is a valid way of decomposing a rotational velocity vector.
I admit it is less obvious than with linear motion. Displacements can be easily shown to add vectorially, and it therefore works for linear velocities and accelerations by differentiation wrt time. But it does not work for rotations through non-infinitesimal angles: the order of two such rotations matters. But again, it does work for infinitesimal angles, so it also works for angular velocities and accelerations.
But mathematically, this formula proves that it is independent of sign of position vector, right?Orodruin said:The angular momentum about the fixed point now takes the form
$$\vec L = \sum_i m_i (\vec y_i + \vec x_0)\times (\vec \omega \times \vec y_i + \vec v_0)$$ $$= \sum_i m_i[R_i^2 \vec \omega - (\vec y_i\cdot \vec\omega)\vec y_i]+ M \vec x_0 \times \vec v_0+ \sum_i m_i [\vec x_0 \times (\vec\omega \times \vec y_i) + \vec y_i \times \vec v_0]$$
Order, as in which you do first.Aurelius120 said:Order of rotation (as in CW or ACW?) doesn't matter for infinitesimal angles?
Physically it is tough to visualise for sure.
Thanksharuspex said:Order, as in which you do first.
Place a die with 1 facing up, 2 towards you, 3 to the right.
If you rotate it 90° around the left-right (3-4) axis, top (1) away from you, then 90° about the vertical axis, right side away from you, the net result is a rotation about a long diagonal. The faces will now be:
1 left
2 top
3 back
If you had done those two rotations in the other order you would have
1 back
2 right
3 bottom
For infinitesimal rotations we need to switch to a sphere. If we draw little arrows on the surface to represent infinitesimal rotations, we can see that the net of two tiny rotations at right angles is almost the same as a rotation along the hypotenuse. So now they add like vectors.
Where does the -4 come from?Aurelius120 said:$$\dfrac{\omega}{5}\cos\theta \ \hat{n_1} \times \dfrac{-4l}{5} \ \hat{n_2}$$
Because it is measured from COM of system (9l/5) and COM of 1st wheel (5l/5) is on left so position vector is negative?haruspex said:Where does the -4 come from?
Then what you are calculating is the velocity relative to the COM. WhereasAurelius120 said:Because it is measured from COM of system
are velocities relative to the ground frame.Aurelius120 said:##\dfrac{\omega}{5}l\cos\theta ## and ##\dfrac{\omega}{5}2l\cos\theta##
That should be zero if we assume COM to be moving because all points on axle have same velocity wrt ground.haruspex said:Then what you are calculating is the velocity relative to the COM. Whereas
But didn't we assume COM to be at rest for calculating angular momentum?haruspex said:are velocities relative to the ground frame.
You cannot expect them to be the same.
No they don’t. The velocity of a point on the axle relative to the ground is directly proportional to the distance from the point O as the axle is precessing around the z-axis.Aurelius120 said:That should be zero if we assume COM to be moving because all points on axle have same velocity wrt ground.
Not so. A point on the axle at r from the z axis is moving at ##\frac 15\omega r## relative to the ground.Aurelius120 said:That should be zero if we assume COM to be moving because all points on axle have same velocity wrt ground.
Question B asks for angular momentum about the COM, and for that purpose it is fine to use velocity relative to that.Aurelius120 said:But didn't we assume COM to be at rest for calculating angular momentum?
Orodruin said:No they don’t. The velocity of a point on the axle relative to the ground is directly proportional to the distance from the point O as the axle is precessing around the z-axis.
How on Earth did I miss that? That was stupid of me.haruspex said:Not so. A point on the axle at r from the z axis is moving at ##\frac 15\omega r## relative to the ground.
Ah! So we use velocity relative to COMharuspex said:Question B asks for angular momentum about the COM, and for that purpose it is fine to use velocity relative to that.