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stringsandfields
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I'm working on a problem involving the following action:
$$S_1 = T_{p+1}\int{d^{p+2}\sigma (\frac{1}{4}\alpha'^2 F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu} + \frac{1}{2} \partial_\alpha X^i \partial^{\alpha} X^J \delta_{ij}+ \text{interaction terms})}$$
which represents the action of an effective free string theory in a low energy limit, thus focusing on the massless sector of the theory. This action represent a (p+1) brane in $$\mathbb{R}^{1,p} \times S^1$$ spacetime (so one dimension has been compactified into a circle). Here $F = dA$ is a 2-form on a (p+2) lorentzian manifold and $\alpha'$ is a constant (which I believe to be the Regge slope).
Then I was told that if we focus on the massless sector restricting ourself to ##n=0## modes for the momentum in the compact dimension (which is quantised), we get the following action:
$$S_{2} = -2\pi RT_{p+1} \int d^{p+1}\sigma\left(\frac{1}{4} \alpha'^2F_{\alpha\beta}F^{\alpha \beta} + \frac{1}{2} (\alpha' \partial_\alpha A_z)(\alpha' \partial^\alpha A_z)+\frac{1}{2}\partial_\alpha X^i \partial^\alpha X^j \delta_{ij}\right)$$
Now I was asked to comment on the fact on how the coefficient ##T_p## would transform under T-Duality, but I'm struggling to think about this. What I can intuitively see here is that these two actions must be the same under T-Duality so I would assume that the transformation of ##T_p## is simply given by multiplying by the circumference of the circle. However, I'm not sure because ##R## has dimensions so I'm not sure if this follows.
$$S_1 = T_{p+1}\int{d^{p+2}\sigma (\frac{1}{4}\alpha'^2 F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu} + \frac{1}{2} \partial_\alpha X^i \partial^{\alpha} X^J \delta_{ij}+ \text{interaction terms})}$$
which represents the action of an effective free string theory in a low energy limit, thus focusing on the massless sector of the theory. This action represent a (p+1) brane in $$\mathbb{R}^{1,p} \times S^1$$ spacetime (so one dimension has been compactified into a circle). Here $F = dA$ is a 2-form on a (p+2) lorentzian manifold and $\alpha'$ is a constant (which I believe to be the Regge slope).
Then I was told that if we focus on the massless sector restricting ourself to ##n=0## modes for the momentum in the compact dimension (which is quantised), we get the following action:
$$S_{2} = -2\pi RT_{p+1} \int d^{p+1}\sigma\left(\frac{1}{4} \alpha'^2F_{\alpha\beta}F^{\alpha \beta} + \frac{1}{2} (\alpha' \partial_\alpha A_z)(\alpha' \partial^\alpha A_z)+\frac{1}{2}\partial_\alpha X^i \partial^\alpha X^j \delta_{ij}\right)$$
Now I was asked to comment on the fact on how the coefficient ##T_p## would transform under T-Duality, but I'm struggling to think about this. What I can intuitively see here is that these two actions must be the same under T-Duality so I would assume that the transformation of ##T_p## is simply given by multiplying by the circumference of the circle. However, I'm not sure because ##R## has dimensions so I'm not sure if this follows.
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