- #1
gionole
- 281
- 24
I was studying a derivation of noether's theorem mathematically and something struck my eyes.
Suppose you have ##L(q, \dot q, t)## and you transform it and get ##L' = L(\sigma(q, a), \frac{d}{dt}\sigma(q,a), t)##. ##\sigma## is a transformation function for ##q##
Let's represent ##L'## by taylor around point 0, which gives us:
##L(q, \dot q) + a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ...##
Now, here is the tricky part: If lagrangians(before and after transformation) are differed by total time derivative of some function, we can say that:
##\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##
Note that first order from taylor turned out to be enough, even though taylor only with first order is not the exact(100%) approximation of any ##L##. So it turns out that we use: ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = a\frac{d}{dt}\Lambda## instead of ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ... = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##
I am told that we can do this because ##a## is infinetisemal transformation, but still don't get why this works. I know I need to know lie theory to understand this, but isn't there really any other way to somehow grasp it without bunch of math ?
Suppose you have ##L(q, \dot q, t)## and you transform it and get ##L' = L(\sigma(q, a), \frac{d}{dt}\sigma(q,a), t)##. ##\sigma## is a transformation function for ##q##
Let's represent ##L'## by taylor around point 0, which gives us:
##L(q, \dot q) + a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ...##
Now, here is the tricky part: If lagrangians(before and after transformation) are differed by total time derivative of some function, we can say that:
##\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##
Note that first order from taylor turned out to be enough, even though taylor only with first order is not the exact(100%) approximation of any ##L##. So it turns out that we use: ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} = a\frac{d}{dt}\Lambda## instead of ##a\frac{\partial L}{\partial a}\Bigr|_{a=0} + a^2\frac{\partial^2 L}{\partial a^2}\Bigr|_{a=0} + ... = \frac{d}{dt}\Lambda##
I am told that we can do this because ##a## is infinetisemal transformation, but still don't get why this works. I know I need to know lie theory to understand this, but isn't there really any other way to somehow grasp it without bunch of math ?
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