- #1
RedX
- 970
- 3
Why are spin 0 mesons pseudo-scalar, and spin 1 mesons vector?
Why can't spin 0 mesons be scalar, and spin 1 mesons be pseudo-vector?
If observables are bilinear in the fields, then how can you even detect whether a field is pseudo-scalar, since [tex]\phi^2 [/tex] is a scalar no matter if the meson field is pseudo-scalar or scalar?
Also, is it correct to assume that spin 0 mesons obey the Klein-Gordan equation, and spin 1 mesons obey the Maxwell equations but with a mass term, i.e., [tex]\mathcal L=-\frac{1}{4} F_{\mu \nu}F^{\mu \nu}-\frac{m}{2}A_\mu A^\mu[/tex]?
Why can't spin 0 mesons be scalar, and spin 1 mesons be pseudo-vector?
If observables are bilinear in the fields, then how can you even detect whether a field is pseudo-scalar, since [tex]\phi^2 [/tex] is a scalar no matter if the meson field is pseudo-scalar or scalar?
Also, is it correct to assume that spin 0 mesons obey the Klein-Gordan equation, and spin 1 mesons obey the Maxwell equations but with a mass term, i.e., [tex]\mathcal L=-\frac{1}{4} F_{\mu \nu}F^{\mu \nu}-\frac{m}{2}A_\mu A^\mu[/tex]?