The automorphic group is abelian

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In summary: Wondering)In summary, we have shown that the order of $a^k$ in a cyclic group $G = \langle a\rangle$ of order $n$ is given by $|a^k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$. Using this fact, we can show that the order of $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is $\phi(n)$ by considering the order of the generators in $Z_n^{\ast}$, the multiplicative group of integers that are prime to $n$. By defining a function $f:Aut(Z_n)\rightarrow Z_n^{\ast}$, we can show that $f$ is an isomorphism and thus the
  • #1
mathmari
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Hey! :eek:

I want to show that $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is an abelian group of order $\phi (n)$.

We have that $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is cyclic and it is generated by one element.

Does it have $\phi (n)$ possible generators? (Wondering)

Let $h\in \text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$.
Then $h(k)=h(1+1+\dots +1)=h(1)+h(1)+\dots +h(1)=kh(1)$, since $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is cyclic with generator $1$ under the addition and $h$ is an homomorphism.

Since $h(1)\in \mathbb{Z}_n$, let $h(1)=a$, we have the mapping $$k\mapsto ak$$

Do we take two elements $h_1,h_2\in\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ and show that $$h_1(i)\cdot h_2(j)=h_2(j)\cdot h_1(i)$$ ? (Wondering)

We have $$h_1(i)\cdot h_2(j)=ih_1(1)jh_2(1)$$ How could we continue? (Wondering)

Or do we have to show that this group is isomorphic to an abelian group? (Wondering)
 
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  • #2
mathmari said:
Do we take two elements $h_1,h_2\in\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ and show that $$h_1(i)\cdot h_2(j)=h_2(j)\cdot h_1(i)$$ ? (Wondering)

We have $$h_1(i)\cdot h_2(j)=ih_1(1)jh_2(1)$$ How could we continue? (Wondering)

Or do we have to show that this group is isomorphic to an abelian group? (Wondering)

Hey mathmari! (Smile)

Not quite.
The operation in $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is function composition.
So we need to verify if $h_1 \circ h_2=h_2\circ h_1$.
That is, that for any $i \in \mathbb{Z}_n$, we have $h_1(h_2(i)) = h_2(h_1(i))$. (Thinking)
 
  • #3
I like Serena said:
The operation in $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is function composition.
So we need to verify if $h_1 \circ h_2=h_2\circ h_1$.
That is, that for any $i \in \mathbb{Z}_n$, we have $h_1(h_2(i)) = h_2(h_1(i))$. (Thinking)

Ah ok... (Thinking)

So, we have the following:

$$h_1(h_2(i)) =h_1(ih_2(1))=h_1(h_2(1)+h_2(1)+\dots +h_2(1))$$ We add $i$ times $h_2(1)$. Since $h_1$ is an homomorphism, we get $$h_1(h_2(1)+h_2(1)+\dots +h_2(1))=h_1(h_2(1))+h_1(h_2(1))+\dots +h_1(h_2(1))=ih_1(h_2(1))$$

Since $h_2(1)\in \mathbb{Z}_n$ we have that $$h_1(h_2(1))=h_2(1)h_1(1)$$ right? (Wondering)

Therefore, $$h_1(h_2(i))=ih_1(h_2(1))=ih_2(1)h_1(1)$$ Calculating the other part, we get

$$h_2(h_1(i)) =h_2(ih_1(1))=h_2(h_1(1)+h_1(1)+\dots +h_1(1))=h_2(h_1(1))+h_2(h_1(1))+\dots +h_2(h_1(1))=ih_2(h_1(1))=ih_1(1)h_2(1)$$ Is everything correct so far? (Wondering) Does it stand that $h_2(1)h_1(1)=h_1(1)h_2(1)$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #4
mathmari said:
$$h_2(h_1(i)) =h_2(ih_1(1))=h_2(h_1(1)+h_1(1)+\dots +h_1(1))=h_2(h_1(1))+h_2(h_1(1))+\dots +h_2(h_1(1))=ih_2(h_1(1))=ih_1(1)h_2(1)$$ Is everything correct so far? (Wondering)

Yes.
Note that it suffices to verify what happens to the generator(s). (Thinking)
Does it stand that $h_2(1)h_1(1)=h_1(1)h_2(1)$ ? (Wondering)

Yes, since we're talking about regular multiplication, which is abelian. (Nod)
 
  • #5
I like Serena said:
Yes.
Note that it suffices to verify what happens to the generator(s). (Thinking)

When $i$ is a generator then $h_1(i)$ and $h_2(i)$ are also generators, right? (Wondering)

To do the above we suppose $i$ to be a generator, right? (Wondering)
I like Serena said:
Yes, since we're talking about regular multiplication, which is abelian. (Nod)

What do you mean by "regular multiplication" ? (Wondering)
 
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  • #6
Maybe the following will help. What you are trying to do is show that $Aut(Z_n)$ is isomorphic to $Z_n^{\ast}$, the multiplicative group of integers that are prime to n. This latter group is obviously abelian of order $\phi(n)$. So define $$f:Aut(Z_n)\rightarrow Z_n^{\ast}\text{ by }\,\forall h\in Aut(Z_n),\,\, f(h)\equiv h(1)\pmod{n}$$
It's pretty straight forward to show that f is indeed an isomorphism.
 
  • #7
Something that make prove to be of general use, here, is the following fact:

If $G = \langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$, then the order of $a^k$ (and thus the order of $\langle a^k \rangle$ as a subgroup of $G$) is:

$|a^k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$.

From which it is easy to see that $|a^k| = n \iff \gcd(k,n) = 1$.

I urge you to try to prove this basic result.

(For cyclic groups written additively as $\Bbb Z_n$, this becomes (using $a = 1$):

$|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$, where $|k|$ is the least positive integer $t$ such that $kt = 0$ (mod $n$)).

For example, in $\Bbb Z_{24}$ we have:

$|16| = \dfrac{24}{\gcd(16,24)} = \dfrac{24}{8} = 3$, and in fact:

$16 \neq 0$ (mod 24)
$32 = 8 \neq 0$ (mod 24) (so the order of 16 is not 2)
$48 = 24 + 24 = 0 + 0 = 0$ (mod 24), so the order of 16 is indeed 3.
 
  • #8
Deveno said:
If $G = \langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$, then the order of $a^k$ (and thus the order of $\langle a^k \rangle$ as a subgroup of $G$) is:

$|a^k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$.

I urge you to try to prove this basic result.

We have that $G=\langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$. That means that $a^n=e_G$.

Suppose that the order of $a^k$ is $m$. That means that $(a^k)^m=e_G \Rightarrow a^{km}=e_G$.

By Lagrange's theorem, we have that the order of a subroup divides the order of the group, so $m\mid n$.

How could we continue? (Wondering)

We have that $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is a cyclic group of order $n$.
I got stuck right now... How do we use the above formula to show that the order of $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is $\phi (n)$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #9
You'll have to be a bit clever.

You know that $m = \dfrac{n}{d}$ for some $d$. Good, that's a start.

But you haven't used any properties of the gcd, yet.
 
  • #10
We have that $G=\langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$. That means that $a^n=1$.

We have that $\gcd (k,n)$ divides $k$, so $\frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is an integer. So, $n$ divides $\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}$.

Since $a^n=1$ and $n$ divides $\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}$, we have that $a^{\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1 \Rightarrow (a^k)^{\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1$.

To show that $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is the order of $a^k$, we have to show that there is no $x<\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ such that $(a^k)^x=1$.

Suppose there is such a $x<\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ such that $(a^k)^x=1$.

Then $(a^k)^x=1 \Rightarrow a^{kx}=1$.

$n$ must divide $kx$, that means that $\exists s\in \mathbb{Z} : kx=ns$.

Dividing the last equation by $\gcd (k,n)$ we get $$\frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)} x=\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}s$$
We have that $$\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}s \Rightarrow \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid \frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)} x$$

We have that $\gcd \left (\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}, \frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)}\right )=1$, so it implies that $$\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid x \Rightarrow \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\leq x$$ That is a contradiction.

Therefore, $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is the smallest integer such that $(a^k)^{\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1$.

Therefore, the order of $a^k$ is $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$.

Is this correct? (Wondering)
 
  • #11
The generators of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ are the elements of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ that have order $n$.

From the formula $$|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$$ we have that an element $k$ of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ has order $n$ iff $\gcd(k,n)=1$.

There are $\phi (n)$ such elements.

Therefore, there are $\phi (n)$ generators of $\mathbb{Z}_n$, so the order of $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is $\phi (n)$, right? (Wondering)
Deveno said:
If $G = \langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$, then the order of $a^k$ (and thus the order of $\langle a^k \rangle$ as a subgroup of $G$) is:

$|a^k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$.

From which it is easy to see that $|a^k| = n \iff \gcd(k,n) = 1$.

I urge you to try to prove this basic result.

(For cyclic groups written additively as $\Bbb Z_n$, this becomes (using $a = 1$):

$|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$, where $|k|$ is the least positive integer $t$ such that $kt = 0$ (mod $n$)).
Do we get the formula $|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$ using as a generator of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ the element $1$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #12
mathmari said:
The generators of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ are the elements of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ that have order $n$.

From the formula $$|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$$ we have that an element $k$ of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ has order $n$ iff $\gcd(k,n)=1$.

There are $\phi (n)$ such elements.

Therefore, there are $\phi (n)$ generators of $\mathbb{Z}_n$, so the order of $\text{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_n)$ is $\phi (n)$, right? (Wondering)
Do we get the formula $|k| = \dfrac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$ using as a generator of $\mathbb{Z}_n$ the element $1$ ? (Wondering)

Yes, since $k = k\cdot 1$.
 
  • #13
Ah ok... Thank you very much! (Mmm)

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I like Serena said:
Yes, since we're talking about regular multiplication, which is abelian. (Nod)

Do you mean that since $h_1(1), h_2(1)\in \mathbb{Z}_n$ and $\mathbb{Z}_n$ is abelian we have that $$h_1(1)h_2(1)=h_2(1)h_1(1)$$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #14
mathmari said:
We have that $G=\langle a\rangle$ is a cyclic group of order $n$. That means that $a^n=1$.

We have that $\gcd (k,n)$ divides $k$, so $\frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is an integer. So, $n$ divides $\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}$.

Since $a^n=1$ and $n$ divides $\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}$, we have that $a^{\frac{kn}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1 \Rightarrow (a^k)^{\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1$.

To show that $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is the order of $a^k$, we have to show that there is no $x<\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ such that $(a^k)^x=1$.

Suppose there is such a $x<\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ such that $(a^k)^x=1$.

Then $(a^k)^x=1 \Rightarrow a^{kx}=1$.

$n$ must divide $kx$, that means that $\exists s\in \mathbb{Z} : kx=ns$.

Dividing the last equation by $\gcd (k,n)$ we get $$\frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)} x=\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}s$$
We have that $$\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}s \Rightarrow \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid \frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)} x$$

We have that $\gcd \left (\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}, \frac{k}{\gcd (k,n)}\right )=1$, so it implies that $$\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\mid x \Rightarrow \frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}\leq x$$ That is a contradiction.

Therefore, $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$ is the smallest integer such that $(a^k)^{\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}}=1$.

Therefore, the order of $a^k$ is $\frac{n}{\gcd (k,n)}$.

Is this correct? (Wondering)

Seems legit :P
 
  • #15
Thank you very much for your help! (Smile)
 

FAQ: The automorphic group is abelian

What is an automorphic group?

An automorphic group is a mathematical term used to describe a group that preserves certain geometric properties when acted upon by automorphisms, which are bijective transformations from the group to itself.

What does it mean for an automorphic group to be abelian?

An automorphic group is considered abelian if its group operation is commutative, meaning that the order of elements in the group does not affect the outcome. In simpler terms, if a and b are elements in an abelian automorphic group, then a * b = b * a, where * represents the group operation.

What are some examples of abelian automorphic groups?

Some examples of abelian automorphic groups include the integers under addition, the real numbers under multiplication, and the group of invertible 2x2 matrices with real entries under matrix multiplication.

Why is it important for an automorphic group to be abelian?

An abelian automorphic group has many useful properties and simplifies many mathematical calculations and proofs. It also allows for easier generalizations to larger groups and provides insight into the structure of more complex groups.

How is the abelian property of an automorphic group proven?

The abelian property of an automorphic group can be proven by showing that the group's operation is commutative, or by demonstrating that all of its subgroups are normal. Additionally, the abelian property can be shown by constructing a group isomorphism to a known abelian group.

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