- #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
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Hello! (Smirk)
Proposition
The set $\mathbb{Z}$ of integers is countable.
Proof
$\mathbb{Z}$ is an infinite set since $\{ +n: n \in \omega \} \subset \mathbb{Z}$.
$$+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$$
We define the function $f: \omega^2 \to \mathbb{Z}$ with $f(\langle n,m \rangle)=m-n$ that is obviously surjective.
Since $\omega^2$ is countable we conclude that $\mathbb{Z}$ is countable.In this case can we subtract two natural numbers since we define $+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$ ?Also how could we show that $f$ is surjective?
It suffices to show that $\forall y \in m-n, \exists \langle m, n \rangle $ such that $f(\langle m, n \rangle)=m-n$, right?
How could this be shown? (Thinking)
Proposition
The set $\mathbb{Z}$ of integers is countable.
Proof
$\mathbb{Z}$ is an infinite set since $\{ +n: n \in \omega \} \subset \mathbb{Z}$.
$$+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$$
We define the function $f: \omega^2 \to \mathbb{Z}$ with $f(\langle n,m \rangle)=m-n$ that is obviously surjective.
Since $\omega^2$ is countable we conclude that $\mathbb{Z}$ is countable.In this case can we subtract two natural numbers since we define $+n= [\langle n, 0 \rangle]=\{ \langle k,l \rangle: k+n=l\}$ ?Also how could we show that $f$ is surjective?
It suffices to show that $\forall y \in m-n, \exists \langle m, n \rangle $ such that $f(\langle m, n \rangle)=m-n$, right?
How could this be shown? (Thinking)
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