The subsets of finite sets are finite sets.

In summary, subsets of finite sets are also finite sets, as shown by taking the restriction of a bijective function from the original finite set to a subset.
  • #1
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

A set is called finite if it is equinumerous with a natural number $n \in \omega$.​

I want to show that the subsets of finite sets are finite sets.

That's what I have tried so far:

Let $A$ be a finite set.
Then $A \sim n$, for a natural number $n \in \omega$.
That means that there is a $1-1$ and surjective function $f: A \to n$.
Let $B \subset A$.
That means that $\forall x(x \in B \rightarrow x \in A)$.
What bijective function could we take in order to show that $B$ is also a finite set?
 
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  • #2
We can take the restriction of $f$ to $B$, $f|_B: B \to n$.Since $f$ is a bijective function, its restriction to $B$ is also a bijective function.Therefore, $B$ is equinumerous with $n$ and so $B$ is a finite set.
 

FAQ: The subsets of finite sets are finite sets.

What does "The subsets of finite sets are finite sets" mean?

This means that if a set is finite, then all of its subsets are also finite.

Why is this statement important in mathematics?

This statement is important because it helps to define the properties of finite sets and their subsets. It also allows for the development of mathematical proofs and theories related to finite sets.

How does this statement relate to the concept of infinity?

This statement does not directly relate to the concept of infinity. However, it does imply that infinite sets cannot have finite subsets, as all subsets of a finite set must also be finite.

Can this statement be proven?

Yes, this statement can be proven using mathematical principles and logic.

Are there any exceptions to this statement?

No, this statement holds true for all finite sets and their subsets.

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