- #1
LagrangeEuler
- 717
- 20
Lets consider [tex]T(\vec{p})=\frac{\vec{p}^2}{2m}=\frac{\vec{p}\cdot \vec{p}}{2m}[/tex]. Then [tex]\frac{dT}{dt}=\vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}[/tex].
And if we consider
[tex]T=\frac{p^2}{2m}[/tex] than [tex]\frac{dT}{dt}=\frac{1}{2m}2p\frac{dp}{dt}[/tex]
Could I see from that somehow that this is [tex]\vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}[/tex]?
And if we consider
[tex]T=\frac{p^2}{2m}[/tex] than [tex]\frac{dT}{dt}=\frac{1}{2m}2p\frac{dp}{dt}[/tex]
Could I see from that somehow that this is [tex]\vec{v}\cdot \vec{F}[/tex]?