- #1
ffp
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Ok, first I want to say that I am an electrical engineer. I want to be very clear that I am trying to understand a specific situation that I came across. I am searching for an answer of why and how this situation could happen. I don't want a solution for the problem, just a theoretical, physical explanation. The other thread I posted was locked due to an apparent "safety" issue. I can't stress this enough, I am not looking for tips about what to do or how to proceed. My issue is with the theory behind this. So we might as well treat it as an hypothetical situation.
This is an example circuit of a 2 phase house (220 V phase-neutral). Phase C of the transformer goes to another house, while phase A and B are the phases of this house.
C1,C2,C3 and C4 are the 4 circuits this house has each with its respective circuit breaker. N is the neutral bar that is shared among all circuits in N1 and N2. Tomada 1, 2 and 3 are the outlets 1, 2 and 3.
Now, the neutral opened right after the neutral bar in N1, affecting C1 and the two outlets that belong to this circuit. If you put a load in outlet 1, the potential of phase A will be transferred to N1 that is connected in the outlets. However, there will be no voltage because there is no potential diference and a multimeter in outlet 2 would register 0 V.Any device pluged in outlet 2 won't work. Outlet 3 will work normally.
Now, consider this last scenario, where the opening happens before the neutral bar. Now the load in outlet 1 also transfers the potential of phase A to N1, there is no voltage in outlet 2 and there will be a higher voltage in outlet 3, since it's neutral now has the potential of phase A. Outlet 3 is now a phase-phase 380 V outlet.
Now, I would like to question:
1- If I say that the load plugged in outlet 1 in both scenarios is still working. What could possibly be allowing this to happen?
2- If there was a combination of the two scenarios, an opening before the neutral bar and an opening in both neutrals (N1 and N2), and the multimeter in outlet 2 registered 220 V. How could that be possible?
This is an example circuit of a 2 phase house (220 V phase-neutral). Phase C of the transformer goes to another house, while phase A and B are the phases of this house.
C1,C2,C3 and C4 are the 4 circuits this house has each with its respective circuit breaker. N is the neutral bar that is shared among all circuits in N1 and N2. Tomada 1, 2 and 3 are the outlets 1, 2 and 3.
Now, the neutral opened right after the neutral bar in N1, affecting C1 and the two outlets that belong to this circuit. If you put a load in outlet 1, the potential of phase A will be transferred to N1 that is connected in the outlets. However, there will be no voltage because there is no potential diference and a multimeter in outlet 2 would register 0 V.Any device pluged in outlet 2 won't work. Outlet 3 will work normally.
Now, consider this last scenario, where the opening happens before the neutral bar. Now the load in outlet 1 also transfers the potential of phase A to N1, there is no voltage in outlet 2 and there will be a higher voltage in outlet 3, since it's neutral now has the potential of phase A. Outlet 3 is now a phase-phase 380 V outlet.
Now, I would like to question:
1- If I say that the load plugged in outlet 1 in both scenarios is still working. What could possibly be allowing this to happen?
2- If there was a combination of the two scenarios, an opening before the neutral bar and an opening in both neutrals (N1 and N2), and the multimeter in outlet 2 registered 220 V. How could that be possible?