There are a,b>=0, such that |f(x)|<= ax+b

  • MHB
  • Thread starter evinda
  • Start date
In summary: Kind regards $\chi$In summary, the conversation discusses the exercise of proving that a uniformly continuous function $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ can be bounded by a linear function. The speakers explore different approaches and eventually conclude that the set of uniformly continuous functions includes functions such as $(x+1)^\alpha$ for $0 \leq \alpha \leq 1$, $\arctan x$, and $\tanh x$. The conversation also touches on the definition of uniformly continuous functions and the conditions for a function to be uniformly continuous.
  • #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
3,836
0
Hey! (Blush)

I have a question..I am given the following exercise:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ uniformly continuous at $[0,+\infty)$.Prove that there are $a,b \geq 0$ such that $|f(x)| \leq ax+b , \forall x \geq 0$.
That's what I did so far:
$f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ is uniformly continuous at $[0,+\infty)$.
So: $\forall \epsilon>0 \exists \delta>0 $ such that $\forall x,y \in [0,+\infty)$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$..
But,how can I continue to show that there are $a,b \geq 0$ such that $|f(x)| \leq ax+b , \forall x \geq 0$?? (Thinking)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Let $b=|f(0)|$. Suppose that for $\epsilon=1$ the corresponding $\delta$ is $0.1$. This means that from $0$ to $0.1$ the function $|f(x)|$ can grow at most by $1$. By the next $0.1$, $|f(x)|$ can grow at most by another $1$, and so on. Can you find a suitable $a$ in this case? Drawing a sketch may help.
 
  • #3
evinda said:
Hey! (Blush)

I have a question..I am given the following exercise:
Let $f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ uniformly continuous at $[0,+\infty)$.Prove that there are $a,b \geq 0$ such that $|f(x)| \leq ax+b , \forall x \geq 0$.
That's what I did so far:
$f:[0,+\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ is uniformly continuous at $[0,+\infty)$.
So: $\forall \epsilon>0 \exists \delta>0 $ such that $\forall x,y \in [0,+\infty)$ with $|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$..
But,how can I continue to show that there are $a,b \geq 0$ such that $|f(x)| \leq ax+b , \forall x \geq 0$?? (Thinking)

If f(*) is uniformly continuous in $[a, + \infty)$ , then its derivative is bounded in the same inteval, i.e. it exists a constant M > 0 such that for any x in $[a, + \infty)$ is $\displaystyle |f^{\ '} (x)| > M$. In this case You can choose two constant a and b with b > M such that is $\displaystyle |a + b\ x|> |f(x)|$ for any x in $[a, + \infty)$...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #4
chisigma said:
If f(*) is uniformly continuous in $[a, + \infty)$ , then its derivative is bounded in the same inteval
A function may be uniformly continuous without being differentiable: see StackExchange.
 
  • #5
Actually what follows, it's the converse:

Let $f:A\subset\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be with bounded derivative then $f$ is Lipschitz on $A,$ hence, uniformly continuous.
 
  • #6
Now, more generally:

Let $f:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ be a uniform continuous function, then exist $a,b>0$ such that $|f(x)|\le a|x|+b.$

Let $\delta > 0$ be such that $|x-y|\le \delta \implies |f(x)-f(y)| < 1$.

Claim: $|f(x)| \le \frac{2}{\delta}|x| +|f(0)|$ for all $x$.

Proof: WLOG, $x>0,$ so $x\in [n \delta, (n+1) \delta)$ for some $n\in \{0,1,\dots\}$. Write $f(x)$ as a telescoping sum using multiples of $\delta,$ then slap on absolute values. We get \[|f(x)| \le |f(x) -f(n \delta)| +|f(n \delta)-f((n-1) \delta)| + \cdots + |f( \delta)-f(0)|+ |f(0)|\]
So this implies that $|f(x)|\le 1+n + |f(0)|.$ If $n>0,$ the latter expresion can be rewritten as $\frac{(n+1)}{n\delta}n\delta + |f(0)| \le \frac{2}{\delta}|x| + |f(0)|.$ If $n=0,$ the claim holds.

So the case here, it's actually $|f(x)|\le ax+b$ since $x\in[0,\infty).$
 
  • #7
I'm not a mathematician and one consequence of that is that I don't consider any type of 'pathological function', the fate of which should be to be closed for life in a 'hospital for incurables' with benefit for all us! :cool:...

Hoping to be absolved for that, since there are uniformly continuous functions 'nowhere differentiable', let's try to find a more general solution of thye proposed question. It is not limitative to suppose f(*) a positive non decreasing uniformly continuous function in $[0, + \infty)$ and we indicate with $\Phi(*)$ the set of such functions. The following propositions are easy to be demonstrated...

a) if $f(*) \in \Phi(*)$ and a>0 then $a\ f(*) \in \Phi(*)$...

b) if $f(*) \in \Phi(*)$ and $g(*) \in \Phi(*)$ then $f(*) + g(*) \in \Phi(*)$...

A little more complex but feasible is to demonstrate the following theorem...

c) the function $f(x) = x^{a}$ is uniformly continuous in $[0, + \infty)$ if and only if $0 \le a \le 1$

Consequence of a), b) and c) is that, given a>0 and b>0, $g(x) = a x + b \in \Phi(*)$ and because value of a and b for which $g(*) = f(*) + h(*)$ being $h(*) \in \Phi(*)$ exist, the OP has been demonstrated. If necessary the demonstration of c) will be supplied...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #8
chisigma said:
It is not limitative to suppose f(*) a positive non decreasing uniformly continuous function in $[0, + \infty)$ and we indicate with $\Phi(*)$ the set of such functions. The following propositions are easy to be demonstrated...

a) if $f(*) \in \Phi(*)$ and a>0 then $a\ f(*) \in \Phi(*)$...

b) if $f(*) \in \Phi(*)$ and $g(*) \in \Phi(*)$ then $f(*) + g(*) \in \Phi(*)$...

A little more complex but feasible is to demonstrate the following theorem...

c) the function $f(x) = x^{a}$ is uniformly continuous in $[0, + \infty)$ if and only if $0 \le a \le 1$
Unfortunately the function $f(x) = x^\alpha$ is not uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ for $\alpha<1$. In fact, $f'(x) = \alpha x^{\alpha-1}$, which becomes unbounded as $x\to0$. A function with an unbounded derivative can never be uniformly continuous. So the only value of $\alpha$ for which the function is uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ is $\alpha=1.$

Examples of 'non-pathological' functions in the set $\Phi(*)$ include $(x+1)^\alpha$ (for $0\leqslant \alpha\leqslant 1$), $\arctan x$ and $\tanh x$.

*Edit* See retraction below! I was confusing uniform continuity with Lipschitz continuity when I wrote the above nonsense.
 
Last edited:
  • #9
Opalg said:
Unfortunately the function $f(x) = x^\alpha$ is not uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ for $\alpha<1$. In fact, $f'(x) = \alpha x^{\alpha-1}$, which becomes unbounded as $x\to0$. A function with an unbounded derivative can never be uniformly continuous. So the only value of $\alpha$ for which the function is uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ is $\alpha=1.$

Examples of 'non-pathological' functions in the set $\Phi(*)$ include $(x+1)^\alpha$ (for $0\leqslant \alpha\leqslant 1$), $\arctan x$ and $\tanh x$.

I have to confess to be a little embarassed at this point, because I remember that a 'classical' example of uniformly continuous function on $[0, + \infty)$ is $f(x)= \sqrt{x}$. Among the [numerous] posts on Web about this argument there is the following...

Show that sqrt(x) is uniformly continuous on [0,infinity) - Math Help Forum

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
  • #10
chisigma said:
I have to confess to be a little embarassed at this point, because I remember that a 'classical' example of uniformly continuous function on $[0, + \infty)$ is $f(x)= \sqrt{x}$. Among the [numerous] posts on Web about this argument there is the following...

Show that sqrt(x) is uniformly continuous on [0,infinity) - Math Help Forum

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
Now it's my turn to be embarrassed, because of course $x^\alpha$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ when $0\leqslant \alpha \leqslant 1.$ I must be getting old. (Worried)
 
  • #11
Opalg said:
Now it's my turn to be embarrassed, because of course $x^\alpha$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,\infty)$ when $0\leqslant \alpha \leqslant 1.$ I must be getting old. (Worried)

... not only You! (Worried)...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 

FAQ: There are a,b>=0, such that |f(x)|<= ax+b

What does the equation |f(x)|<= ax+b mean?

The equation |f(x)|<= ax+b means that the absolute value of the function f(x) is less than or equal to the product of a and x plus b. In other words, the value of the function f(x) is always within a certain range determined by the values of a and b.

How do I find the values of a and b in the equation |f(x)|<= ax+b?

To find the values of a and b, you will need to have an understanding of the function f(x). You can either use mathematical techniques such as differentiation and integration to determine the values, or you can use experimental methods to gather data points and fit a line to it to determine the values.

What is the significance of having a and b both greater than or equal to 0?

The values of a and b being greater than or equal to 0 indicates that the function f(x) is bounded and will never exceed a certain range. This is important in many applications, such as in physics or economics, where having a limit or constraint is necessary for accurate modeling.

Can the equation |f(x)|<= ax+b be used for all types of functions?

No, the equation is only applicable for certain types of functions, such as linear, quadratic, and polynomial functions. It cannot be used for functions with exponential or trigonometric components, as they do not have a constant rate of change that is necessary for the equation to hold.

How can the equation |f(x)|<= ax+b be useful in scientific research?

The equation can be useful in various ways, such as determining the maximum and minimum values of a function, analyzing the behavior of a function within a certain range, and predicting future values of a function based on its current behavior. It is also a fundamental concept in the study of limits and convergence in mathematics and physics.

Back
Top