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For a reaction defined as such,
$$A\rightleftharpoons B$$
the equilibrium constant ##K## is defined by ##K = p_B / p_A##, with ##p## denoting the partial pressure (edit: at equilibrium). However, if ##K<<1##, which implies ##p_A >> p_B##, it is said that the backwards reaction dominates and that the container will be filled mainly with ##A##. ##K>>1## then implies the opposite, and the container will be filled mainly with ##B##.
Why is this the case? For example, if I had a container filled only with ##A##, which means ##K = 0 < 1##, how does any backward reaction dominate? Shouldn't the "A converts to B" reaction dominate?
Thanks in advance!
$$A\rightleftharpoons B$$
the equilibrium constant ##K## is defined by ##K = p_B / p_A##, with ##p## denoting the partial pressure (edit: at equilibrium). However, if ##K<<1##, which implies ##p_A >> p_B##, it is said that the backwards reaction dominates and that the container will be filled mainly with ##A##. ##K>>1## then implies the opposite, and the container will be filled mainly with ##B##.
Why is this the case? For example, if I had a container filled only with ##A##, which means ##K = 0 < 1##, how does any backward reaction dominate? Shouldn't the "A converts to B" reaction dominate?
Thanks in advance!
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