- #1
norbert
- 14
- 0
this upper limit is wrong...! I need a help
I have some concerns about this text:
it can easily be shown that F satisfies all the criteria of a vector space. As an example, we demostrate that if
[tex]\psi_{1}(r)[/tex] and [tex]\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] [tex]\in[/tex] F
both can be cosidered to be complex functions
then:
[tex]\psi(r) [/tex] [tex] = \lambda_{1}\psi_{1}(r) + \lambda_{2}\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] [tex]\in[/tex] F (A-1)
where [tex]\lambda_{1}[/tex] and [tex]\lambda_{2}[/tex] are two arbitrary complex numbers
In order to show that [tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] is square integrable
expand [tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] :
[tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] [tex] = |\lambda_{1}|^{2}|\psi_{1}(r)|^{2} + |\lambda_{2}|^{2} |\psi_{2}(r)|^{2} + \lambda_{1}^\ast\lambda_2\psi_1^\ast(r)\psi_2(r) + \lambda_1\lambda_2^\ast\psi_1(r)\psi_2^\ast(r)[/tex] (A-2)
(*) simbol means complex-conjugate
The last two terms of (A-2) have the same modulus, which has as an upper limit:
----- [tex]|\lambda_{1}||\lambda_{2}| . [ |\psi_{1}(r)|^{2} + |\psi_{2}(r)|^{2}][/tex] -----
[tex]|\psi(r)|^{2}[/tex] is therefore smaller than a function whose integral converges, since [tex]\psi_{1}(r)[/tex] and [tex]\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] are square-integrable
The questions are:
Why has the author used the above expression as "upper limit" term?
How did he obtain this expression?
What is the relation of this question with "triangular inequality" referred to complex-variable?
see --- Churchill complex variables and applications ----
can anybody explain me it a little better?
all suggestions will be welcome
thank you all
I have some concerns about this text:
it can easily be shown that F satisfies all the criteria of a vector space. As an example, we demostrate that if
[tex]\psi_{1}(r)[/tex] and [tex]\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] [tex]\in[/tex] F
both can be cosidered to be complex functions
then:
[tex]\psi(r) [/tex] [tex] = \lambda_{1}\psi_{1}(r) + \lambda_{2}\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] [tex]\in[/tex] F (A-1)
where [tex]\lambda_{1}[/tex] and [tex]\lambda_{2}[/tex] are two arbitrary complex numbers
In order to show that [tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] is square integrable
expand [tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] :
[tex]\psi(r)^{2}[/tex] [tex] = |\lambda_{1}|^{2}|\psi_{1}(r)|^{2} + |\lambda_{2}|^{2} |\psi_{2}(r)|^{2} + \lambda_{1}^\ast\lambda_2\psi_1^\ast(r)\psi_2(r) + \lambda_1\lambda_2^\ast\psi_1(r)\psi_2^\ast(r)[/tex] (A-2)
(*) simbol means complex-conjugate
The last two terms of (A-2) have the same modulus, which has as an upper limit:
----- [tex]|\lambda_{1}||\lambda_{2}| . [ |\psi_{1}(r)|^{2} + |\psi_{2}(r)|^{2}][/tex] -----
[tex]|\psi(r)|^{2}[/tex] is therefore smaller than a function whose integral converges, since [tex]\psi_{1}(r)[/tex] and [tex]\psi_{2}(r)[/tex] are square-integrable
The questions are:
Why has the author used the above expression as "upper limit" term?
How did he obtain this expression?
What is the relation of this question with "triangular inequality" referred to complex-variable?
see --- Churchill complex variables and applications ----
can anybody explain me it a little better?
all suggestions will be welcome
thank you all