- #1
The Tortoise-Man
- 95
- 5
I found in wikipedia following formula describing the derivative of operator ## A_H ## considered in Heisenberg picture, where ## A_S ## is it's representation in Schroedinger picture:
## \frac{d}{dt}A_\text{H}(t)=\frac{i}{\hbar}[H_\text{H},A_\text{H}(t)]+\left( \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} \right)_\text{H} . ##Note that ## A_H ## and ## A_S ## are related via ## A_{\mathrm{H}}(t) = e^{iHt/\hbar} A_{\mathrm{S}}(t) e^{-iHt/\hbar} ##.What I not understand is why ## \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} ## isn' t zero ? So far I learned it in Schrödinger picture every operator is time independent, so it' time derivative must be zero, right?Or, how does exacty the the 'sloppy' posed assumption on time independence of operators in Schrödinger picture reads in precise mathematical terms? Should it be that there is no explicit time dependence or total time dependence, ie do operators considered through glasses of Schrödinger picture satisfy ## \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} ## or ## \frac{d A_\text{S}}{d t} ## ?
## \frac{d}{dt}A_\text{H}(t)=\frac{i}{\hbar}[H_\text{H},A_\text{H}(t)]+\left( \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} \right)_\text{H} . ##Note that ## A_H ## and ## A_S ## are related via ## A_{\mathrm{H}}(t) = e^{iHt/\hbar} A_{\mathrm{S}}(t) e^{-iHt/\hbar} ##.What I not understand is why ## \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} ## isn' t zero ? So far I learned it in Schrödinger picture every operator is time independent, so it' time derivative must be zero, right?Or, how does exacty the the 'sloppy' posed assumption on time independence of operators in Schrödinger picture reads in precise mathematical terms? Should it be that there is no explicit time dependence or total time dependence, ie do operators considered through glasses of Schrödinger picture satisfy ## \frac{\partial A_\text{S}}{\partial t} ## or ## \frac{d A_\text{S}}{d t} ## ?