- #36
Saw
Gold Member
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I agree with DaleSpam's answer to my argument of circular reasoning and withdraw that comment, but still think (thanks harrylin for your comments) that the issue of mechanical clocks and TD calls for a deeper explanation than merely resorting to the PoR.
It is true that to do science (i.e., to solve practical day-to-day problems, which is what this is about, after all) you do not need to answer the ultimate why-questions, but it is also true that you do better science to the extent that you dig more deeply, to the extent that you find better models, which may have higher problem-solving capacity.
This is a good example. Kepler's laws were only experimentally based. On those grounds, he said for example (third law) that all planetary motion conforms to the principle T^3/R^2 = constant. But Newton went deeper and understood that gravity is caused by mass and so the mass of the two planets involved in an interaction matters, hence Kepler's rule is only an approximation that exclusively holds when one of the concerned planets has a huge mass compared to which the other's is negligible. Yet... we still have no clue as to why mass generates gravitation force (or the curvature of space-time, if you wish), but Newton's explanation is to be thanked, since it is deeper than Kepler's. BTW, I am not very familiar with GR, but probably space-time curvature is a "deeper" model than Newton's.
Another example: the kinetic theory of heat. We could have contented us with describing that when two bodies get in contact, they conform to the "principle of thermal equilibrium". But knowing that this happens because bodies are composed of particles in motion that collide with each other, is a great insight, which generates many other insights.
Anyhow, leaving the abstract discussion aside... what is the problem with saying that mechanical clocks dilate because the force that causes acceleration (of the moving thing inside the clock) is either light (electromagnetic interaction) or another force that conforms to light's pattern. I know this is not terribly profound, it is quite obvious, but precisely for that, what is wrong with using this answer when somebody asks?
It is true that to do science (i.e., to solve practical day-to-day problems, which is what this is about, after all) you do not need to answer the ultimate why-questions, but it is also true that you do better science to the extent that you dig more deeply, to the extent that you find better models, which may have higher problem-solving capacity.
harrylin said:For example Newton, Lorentz, and likely Kepler. They did not consider such lack of explanation a scientific feature but instead as an incitement for further scientific investigation. For example, I read somewhere (sorry, don't recall where) that Kepler was himself not happy with his theory because he could not explain the "why"; one had to wait for the answer on Newton who provided a deeper level of insight (just one level deeper, as is usual with that kind of answers).
This is a good example. Kepler's laws were only experimentally based. On those grounds, he said for example (third law) that all planetary motion conforms to the principle T^3/R^2 = constant. But Newton went deeper and understood that gravity is caused by mass and so the mass of the two planets involved in an interaction matters, hence Kepler's rule is only an approximation that exclusively holds when one of the concerned planets has a huge mass compared to which the other's is negligible. Yet... we still have no clue as to why mass generates gravitation force (or the curvature of space-time, if you wish), but Newton's explanation is to be thanked, since it is deeper than Kepler's. BTW, I am not very familiar with GR, but probably space-time curvature is a "deeper" model than Newton's.
Another example: the kinetic theory of heat. We could have contented us with describing that when two bodies get in contact, they conform to the "principle of thermal equilibrium". But knowing that this happens because bodies are composed of particles in motion that collide with each other, is a great insight, which generates many other insights.
Anyhow, leaving the abstract discussion aside... what is the problem with saying that mechanical clocks dilate because the force that causes acceleration (of the moving thing inside the clock) is either light (electromagnetic interaction) or another force that conforms to light's pattern. I know this is not terribly profound, it is quite obvious, but precisely for that, what is wrong with using this answer when somebody asks?