- #1
maverick280857
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Hi,
I am reading through Section 3.4 of Lewis Ryder's QFT book, where he makes the statement,
This makes some sense intuitively, but can someone please explain this direct product equivalence to me as I do not have a firm background in topology (unfortunately, I need some of it for a project so I am reading it as I go along -- a bad idea, but I have no time :().
Specifically, how does this direct product come about?
Thanks in advance!
I am reading through Section 3.4 of Lewis Ryder's QFT book, where he makes the statement,
The configuration space of the Bohm-Aharonov experiment is the plane [itex]\mathbb{R}^2[/itex] with a hole in, and this is topologically, the direct product of the line [itex]\mathbb{R}^1[/itex] and the circle [itex]S^1[/itex]: [itex]\mathbb{R}^1 \times \mathbb{S}^1[/itex].
This makes some sense intuitively, but can someone please explain this direct product equivalence to me as I do not have a firm background in topology (unfortunately, I need some of it for a project so I am reading it as I go along -- a bad idea, but I have no time :().
Specifically, how does this direct product come about?
Thanks in advance!