- #1
ibc
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from high school mathematics I remember that there is a side-side-angle triangle congruence statement, which says it only proves the congruence if the angle oppose the larger of the 2 sides.
I don't understand why is that, and if in both triangles I have 2 equal sides, and an equal angle opposing 1 side, shouldn't I immediately get the angle opposing the other side, from the sins law?
I don't understand why is that, and if in both triangles I have 2 equal sides, and an equal angle opposing 1 side, shouldn't I immediately get the angle opposing the other side, from the sins law?