- #1
Robokapp
- 218
- 0
Okay. i know that
d/dx of SIn(x)=Cos(X)
d/dx of COs(x) = -Sin(x)
and the rest of them you get by product rule, quotent rule etc using the rules of the derivatives and setting the fractions up correctly in regard to sin and cos.
but i have three questions:
1) If a sin is a trig function of the smae power as the cos becasue they have the same number of direction changes...how can a cos be the derivative of sin.
2) if d/dx of Sin(x)=cos(x) why is D/dx of Cos(x) not = to Sin(x) since sin and cos are same behavior equations.
3) How do you get the derivative of a sin or cos...i mean how did they come up with them? did they just made them up and make the match around it match?
Like i saw how they came up with 0!=1 and i think they kinda "made it fit"...with the whole 5!=5*4! explanation...
d/dx of SIn(x)=Cos(X)
d/dx of COs(x) = -Sin(x)
and the rest of them you get by product rule, quotent rule etc using the rules of the derivatives and setting the fractions up correctly in regard to sin and cos.
but i have three questions:
1) If a sin is a trig function of the smae power as the cos becasue they have the same number of direction changes...how can a cos be the derivative of sin.
2) if d/dx of Sin(x)=cos(x) why is D/dx of Cos(x) not = to Sin(x) since sin and cos are same behavior equations.
3) How do you get the derivative of a sin or cos...i mean how did they come up with them? did they just made them up and make the match around it match?
Like i saw how they came up with 0!=1 and i think they kinda "made it fit"...with the whole 5!=5*4! explanation...