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Zatman
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Homework Statement
Show that:
∫f(sin(x))dx = ∫f(cos(x))dx
where each integral is over the limits [0, [itex]\pi[/itex]/2], for a 'well behaved' function f.
2. The attempt at a solution
I have tried relating sin(x) and cos(x) and somehow rearrange one of the integrals to look like the other. Since:
sin(x) = cos(x-[itex]\pi[/itex]/2)
I can substitute this into the LHS integral and I am sure this is the correct way to start. It is at this point where I cannot think of any way of moving forward.
Any help would be appreciated.
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