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draco193
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Hello all,
I'm having a little trouble getting the Latex to work, so I'm hoping this won't be too hard for everyone to understand.
I am given the second order differential equation
x2*y''(x)+(2*b+1)*x*y'(x)+c*y(x) = 0
Use the transform x=ez to find the general solution.
b,c are real, and b2>c
Then, using the special solution y=xp, solve for p and confirm you get the same solution.
The find the real solutions if b2=c, b2<c
The Quadratic Formula will be used
For the first part, transforming the original equation:
y'(x) = [tex]\frac{dy}{dz}[/tex]*[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}[/tex] =y'(z)*[tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
similarly, y''(x) = [tex]\frac{-1}{x^2}[/tex].*y''(z)
Replacing into the original equation, I get
-y''(z)+(2b+1)*y'(z)+c*y(z).
Using the quadrtaic equation, I then get as a solution
[tex]\frac{(2b+1) \mp sqrt((4b^2)+4b+4c+1}{2}[/tex]
Using these as r1 and r2, and replacing z with x, I find the general solution y(x) = c*xr1 + c*xr2
So then solving the special solution
x2*(p-1)*(p)*xp-2+x*p*xp-1+c*xp = 0
Simplifying, I get
p2+2bp+c =0
Solving for p, I get p = -b[tex]\pm[/tex] sqrt(b2-c)
This obviously does not equal my other solution, so I'm wondering if anyone can see where it is I've made my mistake?
I'm having a little trouble getting the Latex to work, so I'm hoping this won't be too hard for everyone to understand.
Homework Statement
I am given the second order differential equation
x2*y''(x)+(2*b+1)*x*y'(x)+c*y(x) = 0
Use the transform x=ez to find the general solution.
b,c are real, and b2>c
Then, using the special solution y=xp, solve for p and confirm you get the same solution.
The find the real solutions if b2=c, b2<c
Homework Equations
The Quadratic Formula will be used
The Attempt at a Solution
For the first part, transforming the original equation:
y'(x) = [tex]\frac{dy}{dz}[/tex]*[tex]\frac{dz}{dx}[/tex] =y'(z)*[tex]\frac{1}{x}[/tex]
similarly, y''(x) = [tex]\frac{-1}{x^2}[/tex].*y''(z)
Replacing into the original equation, I get
-y''(z)+(2b+1)*y'(z)+c*y(z).
Using the quadrtaic equation, I then get as a solution
[tex]\frac{(2b+1) \mp sqrt((4b^2)+4b+4c+1}{2}[/tex]
Using these as r1 and r2, and replacing z with x, I find the general solution y(x) = c*xr1 + c*xr2
So then solving the special solution
x2*(p-1)*(p)*xp-2+x*p*xp-1+c*xp = 0
Simplifying, I get
p2+2bp+c =0
Solving for p, I get p = -b[tex]\pm[/tex] sqrt(b2-c)
This obviously does not equal my other solution, so I'm wondering if anyone can see where it is I've made my mistake?
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