Trouble with self-energy formula

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In summary, the self-energy of a uniformly charged sphere of radius a can be calculated by solving for the electrostatic potential, which obeys Poisson's equation in spherical coordinates. The potential is found to be a function of r and can be integrated to find the total energy needed to assemble the sphere. This potential can be found through various resources and is a standard exercise in intermediate-level undergraduate E&M courses.
  • #1
aguycalledwil
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Hi everyone,

I'm having a little difficulty trying to calculate the self-energy of a uniformly charged sphere of radius a. That is, the work done in assembling such a distribution of charge. It is to my understanding that

0.5*integral(ρ*ø(r)dV)

should produce the answer, with ρ being the charge density (constant), ø(r) being some potential, and V being the volume of the sphere. However, I can't figure out what this potential is. Should it be the potential of a spherical shell, ie. Q/(4*pi*epsi0*[r^2])? I tried this but can't get the corrent answer out.

Many thanks in advance,

Will
 
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  • #2
Of course, you have to solve for the electrostatic potential for the given charge distribution.

The potential obeys Poisson's equation (in Heaviside-Lorentz units)
[tex]\Delta \Phi=-\rho.[/tex]
This we write in spherical coordinates. Due to symmetry we can assume that [itex]\Phi=\Phi(r)[/itex] is a function of [itex]r[/itex] only. That simplifies the equation to
[tex]\frac{1}{r} \partial_r^2 \left (r \Phi \right)=\rho.[/tex]
For [itex]r<a[/itex] we have [itex]\rho=\text{const}[/itex]. This gives
[tex](r \Phi)''=\rho r \; \Rightarrow \; (r \Phi)'=-\frac{\rho}{2} r^2+C_1\; \Rightarrow \; \Phi(r)=-\frac{\rho}{6} r^2 + C_1+\frac{C_2}{r}.[/tex]
Since the potential is continuous at the origin we must have [itex]C_2=0[/itex].

For [itex]r>a[/itex] we have [itex]\rho=0[/itex]. There we have
[tex]\Phi(r)=C_1'+\frac{C_2'}{r}.[/tex]
Since we want to define the potential to vanish for [itex]r \rightarrow \infty[/itex] we get [itex]C_1'=0[/itex]. Further the total charge must be [itex]Q=4 \pi a^3 \rho/3[/itex] we find
[tex]C_2'=Q/(4 \pi).[/tex]
Finally the potential must be continuous at [itex]r=a[/itex] which gives
[tex]-\frac{\rho}{6} a^2+C_1=\frac{Q}{4 \pi a}=\frac{a^2 \rho}{3} \; \Rightarrow \; C_1=\frac{a^2 \rho}{2}.[/tex]
Integrating gives
[tex]E_{\text{em}}=2 \pi \rho \int_0^{a} \mathrm{d} r r^2 \Phi(r)=\frac{4}{15} \pi \rho^2 a^5.[/tex]
You get the same result using directly the electric field, which is given by
[itex]\vec{E}_r=-\Phi'(r) \vec{e}_r[/itex]:
[tex]E_{\text{em}}=\frac{1}{2} 4 \pi \int_0^{\infty} \mathrm{d} r r^2 \vec{E}^2.[/tex]
 
  • #3
By elementary methods, consider building up the sphere in thin shells. When the sphere's radius is r, the potential at its surface is [itex]\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r} \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 \rho[/itex]. So the potential energy of the outer shell (all at distance r from centre) is its charge multiplied by the potential we've just written, that is:
[tex]\frac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r} \frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 \rho \times 4 \pi r^2 dr\ \rho\ \ =\ \frac{4}{3} \frac{\pi}{\epsilon_0} \rho^2 r^4 dr.[/tex]
So imagining the sphere to be assembled shell by shell, the total energy needed to do this is
[tex]\int_{0}^{a}\frac{4}{3} \frac{\pi}{\epsilon_0} \rho^2 r^4 dr \ = \ \frac{4}{15} \frac{\pi}{\epsilon_0} \rho^2 a^5.[/tex]
 
  • #4
aguycalledwil said:
I'm having a little difficulty trying to calculate the self-energy of a uniformly charged sphere of radius a. [...] It is to my understanding that

0.5*integral(ρ*ø(r)dV)

should produce the answer, with ρ being the charge density (constant), ø(r) being some potential, and V being the volume of the sphere. However, I can't figure out what this potential is. Should it be the potential of a spherical shell, ie. Q/(4*pi*epsi0*[r^2])?

No, you want the electrostatic potential (as a function of r) produced by a uniformly charged sphere, matching your original problem statement.

Finding this potential is a standard exercise in intermediate-level undergraduate E&M courses, and you will find a Google search on "potential of a uniformly charged sphere" to be fruitful. I see a whole group of hits on threads from Physics Forums alone! :biggrin:
 
  • #5
Thanks for the responses, these have been more than helpful!
 

FAQ: Trouble with self-energy formula

What is the self-energy formula?

The self-energy formula is a mathematical expression used in quantum field theory to calculate the energy associated with a particle's interactions with itself.

Why is there trouble with the self-energy formula?

There are some conceptual and mathematical issues with the self-energy formula, particularly in regards to its prediction of an infinite energy level for a point particle.

What are some proposed solutions to the trouble with the self-energy formula?

Some scientists have proposed renormalization techniques to address the infinite energy issue, while others have suggested alternative mathematical formulations of the formula.

How does the self-energy formula relate to real-world experiments and observations?

The self-energy formula is used in theoretical calculations and predictions, but it is not directly observable in experiments. However, its predictions can be tested and compared to experimental results.

What impact does the self-energy formula have on our understanding of the fundamental nature of particles?

The self-energy formula is an important tool in the study of quantum field theory and the behavior of particles at the subatomic level. Its limitations and potential solutions can provide insights into the fundamental nature of particles and their interactions.

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