- #1
Dustinsfl
- 2,281
- 5
$\DeclareMathOperator{\sech}{sech}$
This integral arose when solving for a solitary wave in the KdV equation.
In class, the professor came up with:
\[
\int\frac{dx}{\sin(x)} = -\frac{1}{2}\ln\left[\frac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 - \cos(x)}\right]
\]
However, Wolfram obtains
\[
\int\frac{dx}{\sin(x)} = -\ln\left[\frac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 - \cos(x)}\right]
\]
but that changes our solitary waves solution from
\[
\sqrt{2\mu}e^{i\varepsilon^2\mu t}
\sech\left[\sqrt{\mu}(x - vt - x_0)\right]
\]
to
\[
\sqrt{2\mu}e^{i\varepsilon^2\mu t}
\sech\left[\frac{\sqrt{\mu}}{2}(x - vt - x_0)\right]
\]
For a solitary wave, the relation between the amplitude and the width has to at a certain portion. The professors solution for the solitary wave is correct but his integral doesn't workout compared to Wolframs.
Is there something I am missing?
This integral arose when solving for a solitary wave in the KdV equation.
In class, the professor came up with:
\[
\int\frac{dx}{\sin(x)} = -\frac{1}{2}\ln\left[\frac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 - \cos(x)}\right]
\]
However, Wolfram obtains
\[
\int\frac{dx}{\sin(x)} = -\ln\left[\frac{1 + \cos(x)}{1 - \cos(x)}\right]
\]
but that changes our solitary waves solution from
\[
\sqrt{2\mu}e^{i\varepsilon^2\mu t}
\sech\left[\sqrt{\mu}(x - vt - x_0)\right]
\]
to
\[
\sqrt{2\mu}e^{i\varepsilon^2\mu t}
\sech\left[\frac{\sqrt{\mu}}{2}(x - vt - x_0)\right]
\]
For a solitary wave, the relation between the amplitude and the width has to at a certain portion. The professors solution for the solitary wave is correct but his integral doesn't workout compared to Wolframs.
Is there something I am missing?