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I am reading Joseph J. Rotman's book: A First Course in Abstract Algebra with Applications (Third Edition) ...
I am currently focused on Section 3.6 Unique Factorization ...
I need help with an aspect of Example 3.70 ...
The relevant text from Rotman's book is as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4651
[NOTE: In the above text, Rotman uses \(\displaystyle \mathbb{I}_8\) for the integers \(\displaystyle \text{ mod } m\) instead of the more usual \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} / \mathbb{Z}_8\) ... ... ]In the above text, Rotman mentions that it is not "obvious" that the linear factors are irreducible ... ...Now, on page 263 he proves that a linear polynomial \(\displaystyle f(x) \in k[x]\) where \(\displaystyle k\) is a field is always irreducible ... ... as follows:View attachment 4652Now Rotman's proof that linear polynomials seems to rest on \(\displaystyle k\) being a field ... but why ... that is my problem ...My thinking on the issue is that \(\displaystyle k\) being a field means \(\displaystyle k[x]\) is a domain ... and, I think a Euclidean ring/domain ... and that \(\displaystyle k[x]\) needs to be a Euclidean ring/domain for a degree function to exist in \(\displaystyle k[x]\) ... ... and Rotman's argument that linear factors are irreducible rests on an argument related to the degrees of polynomials ...Can someone please confirm that my thinking is correct ... or point out deficiencies or errors in my thinking ...
Another question I have is the following:
How in Example 3.85 do we, in fact, prove that each of the linear factors in the example are actually irreducible ...
Hope someone can help ...
Peter
I am currently focused on Section 3.6 Unique Factorization ...
I need help with an aspect of Example 3.70 ...
The relevant text from Rotman's book is as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/4651
[NOTE: In the above text, Rotman uses \(\displaystyle \mathbb{I}_8\) for the integers \(\displaystyle \text{ mod } m\) instead of the more usual \(\displaystyle \mathbb{Z} / \mathbb{Z}_8\) ... ... ]In the above text, Rotman mentions that it is not "obvious" that the linear factors are irreducible ... ...Now, on page 263 he proves that a linear polynomial \(\displaystyle f(x) \in k[x]\) where \(\displaystyle k\) is a field is always irreducible ... ... as follows:View attachment 4652Now Rotman's proof that linear polynomials seems to rest on \(\displaystyle k\) being a field ... but why ... that is my problem ...My thinking on the issue is that \(\displaystyle k\) being a field means \(\displaystyle k[x]\) is a domain ... and, I think a Euclidean ring/domain ... and that \(\displaystyle k[x]\) needs to be a Euclidean ring/domain for a degree function to exist in \(\displaystyle k[x]\) ... ... and Rotman's argument that linear factors are irreducible rests on an argument related to the degrees of polynomials ...Can someone please confirm that my thinking is correct ... or point out deficiencies or errors in my thinking ...
Another question I have is the following:
How in Example 3.85 do we, in fact, prove that each of the linear factors in the example are actually irreducible ...
Hope someone can help ...
Peter