- #1
cragar
- 2,552
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I am trying to understand Euclid's proof of infinite primes. So let's say we have a finite list of primes n1, n2 ... N where N is the largest prime .
Then we take the product of all of these prime numbers, and we will call it Q .
Then we add 1 to it . so this number is either prime or not . If it is prime then we have one more that isn't in our list. But then if it isn't prime, then some larger prime will divide it .
But why can't the number that divides it be even why does it have to be a prime number that can divide it? It is probably simple but I don't see it .
Then we take the product of all of these prime numbers, and we will call it Q .
Then we add 1 to it . so this number is either prime or not . If it is prime then we have one more that isn't in our list. But then if it isn't prime, then some larger prime will divide it .
But why can't the number that divides it be even why does it have to be a prime number that can divide it? It is probably simple but I don't see it .