- #1
derz
- 23
- 0
I'm just an undergrad who's interested in theoretical physics so please be gentle
I've always had the question in mind that does an electron possesses a "rest frequency" that you could derive from it's rest energy... and since I didn't find any info on this on the net I decided to give a go to play with some equations.
Pardon me for not learning how to make the eqs with the code thingy:
E = mc^2
E = hf
so
hf = mc^2
and
f = mc^2 / h
This would be the "rest frequency" of the electron (or some other particle). I don't know if it is legimate to derive the (assumed) frequency this way. Now if we include the velocity of the particle we get
f = mc^2 / h√(1 - v^2 / c^2)
and because ,\ (lambda) = v / f, we get
,\ = v / mc^2 / h√(1 - v^2 / c^2)
= vh√(1 - v^2 / c^2) / mc^2
Now this is really funny: if the wavelenght of the particle is derived with this formula, the result is 100 times smaller than the result given by the de Broglie formula. [ ,\ = (h / p)√(1 - v^2 / c^2) ]
For example, if the speed of the electron is 0,1c, the formula I "proposed" gives the result
,\ = 2,41414856553*10^-13 m
and the de Broglie formula
,\ = 2,41414856553*10^-11 m
What goes wrong with my assumptions / formulas?
Does the electron even possesses such a thing as "rest frequency"?
Btw. the other thing I find funny is that you can write the formula of the kinetic energy of the electron in the form
E_k = h(f - f_o), where f = the frequency of the electron at v and f_o = the rest frequency of the electron
Sorry if I ask/do stupid things, but I just want to know
I've always had the question in mind that does an electron possesses a "rest frequency" that you could derive from it's rest energy... and since I didn't find any info on this on the net I decided to give a go to play with some equations.
Pardon me for not learning how to make the eqs with the code thingy:
E = mc^2
E = hf
so
hf = mc^2
and
f = mc^2 / h
This would be the "rest frequency" of the electron (or some other particle). I don't know if it is legimate to derive the (assumed) frequency this way. Now if we include the velocity of the particle we get
f = mc^2 / h√(1 - v^2 / c^2)
and because ,\ (lambda) = v / f, we get
,\ = v / mc^2 / h√(1 - v^2 / c^2)
= vh√(1 - v^2 / c^2) / mc^2
Now this is really funny: if the wavelenght of the particle is derived with this formula, the result is 100 times smaller than the result given by the de Broglie formula. [ ,\ = (h / p)√(1 - v^2 / c^2) ]
For example, if the speed of the electron is 0,1c, the formula I "proposed" gives the result
,\ = 2,41414856553*10^-13 m
and the de Broglie formula
,\ = 2,41414856553*10^-11 m
What goes wrong with my assumptions / formulas?
Does the electron even possesses such a thing as "rest frequency"?
Btw. the other thing I find funny is that you can write the formula of the kinetic energy of the electron in the form
E_k = h(f - f_o), where f = the frequency of the electron at v and f_o = the rest frequency of the electron
Sorry if I ask/do stupid things, but I just want to know