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DiracPool
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If you look at this video, Lenny Susskind says that you can look at the null-lines, or light cone, lines of the Minkowski diagram at being equivalent to a zero radius in a uniformly accelerated reference frame. This was surprising to me since it looked as though the lines on the graph clearly showed a traversal of space and time that looks on the graph to be non-zero at these asymptotes. However, it does make sense when you consider that the Lorentz contraction pushes a radius to zero once we hit the extreme of these asymptotes.
My question is does this apply to the time axis also? I mean, once you shrink your "time radius," if you will, down to zero, do the time-like asymptotes also qualify as zero all along their extents as they do for their space-like counterparts? It would seem as if they would. But Lenny doesn't state this explicitly.
Forward to 124:50
Lastly, what are the implication here for a post I made earlier. This post asked the question of whether (effectively) time was zero and space was zero along the asymptotes in the Minkowski diagram. From Lenny's dialog, this would indeed be to seem the case.
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/minkowski-diagram-questions.838131/
My question is does this apply to the time axis also? I mean, once you shrink your "time radius," if you will, down to zero, do the time-like asymptotes also qualify as zero all along their extents as they do for their space-like counterparts? It would seem as if they would. But Lenny doesn't state this explicitly.
Forward to 124:50
Lastly, what are the implication here for a post I made earlier. This post asked the question of whether (effectively) time was zero and space was zero along the asymptotes in the Minkowski diagram. From Lenny's dialog, this would indeed be to seem the case.
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/minkowski-diagram-questions.838131/