- #1
Nikitin
- 735
- 27
Hi. OK in a box there are 6 balls, 2 red ones and 4 blue ones. We take 2 balls out of the box without putting any of them back
1) If I wish to know the probability of selecting 2 blue ones, I just do this: (4above2)/(6above2)=6/15 or 4C2/6C2 or (4*3/2)/(6*5/2)2) BUT, if I wish to know the probability 1 blue and 1 red, I must use the first formula here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypergeometric_distribution
(4above1)*(2above1)/(6above2)=8/15=p(1 blue and 1 red ball selected)
WHY can't we use the same logic as in the formula in 1) and do this: (4*2/2)/(6*5/2)=4/15 ?? why is just (4*2)/(6*5/2)=8/15 correct?
I mean, why are the number of relevant outcomes "unorganized" or "combinated" in 2) but in 1) they are "organized" and "permuted" ?
Excuse me for my english. I am hoping somebody can please explain this too me?
1) If I wish to know the probability of selecting 2 blue ones, I just do this: (4above2)/(6above2)=6/15 or 4C2/6C2 or (4*3/2)/(6*5/2)2) BUT, if I wish to know the probability 1 blue and 1 red, I must use the first formula here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypergeometric_distribution
(4above1)*(2above1)/(6above2)=8/15=p(1 blue and 1 red ball selected)
WHY can't we use the same logic as in the formula in 1) and do this: (4*2/2)/(6*5/2)=4/15 ?? why is just (4*2)/(6*5/2)=8/15 correct?
I mean, why are the number of relevant outcomes "unorganized" or "combinated" in 2) but in 1) they are "organized" and "permuted" ?
Excuse me for my english. I am hoping somebody can please explain this too me?
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