- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
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Hey!
$$k_1=(a_1 \ \ \ a_2 \ \ \ \dots \ \ \ a_m)$$
$$k_2=(b_1 \ \ \ b_2 \ \ \ \dots \ \ \ b_n)$$
These cycles are disjoint if each $a_i$ is $\neq$ from each $b_j$.
We remark that $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$ and since $a_i$ isn't any of the $b_j$ that means that $k_2(a_i)=a_i$.
Respectively: $k_2(b_j) \neq b_j \ \ \ \forall j \ \ \ \text{ and } \ \ \ k_1(b_j)=b_j$.What I understand from that is the following:
These cycles are disjoint if all the elements are different.
It stands that $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$ because if $k_1(a_i)=a_i$ then we wouldn't write this element in the cycle but since it exists there it must be $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$. And since the $a_i$'s and $b_j$'s are all different, at the cycle $k_2$ there is no $a_i$, that means that it must be $k_2(a_i)=a_i$.Could you tell me if I have understood it right?? (Wasntme)
$$k_1=(a_1 \ \ \ a_2 \ \ \ \dots \ \ \ a_m)$$
$$k_2=(b_1 \ \ \ b_2 \ \ \ \dots \ \ \ b_n)$$
These cycles are disjoint if each $a_i$ is $\neq$ from each $b_j$.
We remark that $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$ and since $a_i$ isn't any of the $b_j$ that means that $k_2(a_i)=a_i$.
Respectively: $k_2(b_j) \neq b_j \ \ \ \forall j \ \ \ \text{ and } \ \ \ k_1(b_j)=b_j$.What I understand from that is the following:
These cycles are disjoint if all the elements are different.
It stands that $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$ because if $k_1(a_i)=a_i$ then we wouldn't write this element in the cycle but since it exists there it must be $k_1(a_i) \neq a_i$. And since the $a_i$'s and $b_j$'s are all different, at the cycle $k_2$ there is no $a_i$, that means that it must be $k_2(a_i)=a_i$.Could you tell me if I have understood it right?? (Wasntme)