- #1
elemis
- 163
- 1
Supposing I have a function f(x).
Let us suppose that f-1(x) has the same equation as f(x).
Will the domain and range as defined for f(x) be the same as for the inverse ?
Let us suppose that f-1(x) has the same equation as f(x).
Will the domain and range as defined for f(x) be the same as for the inverse ?