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- I'm studying a Galton-Watson process (GWP), with the usual assumptions. I am stuck on a theorem regarding the extinction probability.
I am paraphrasing from An Intermediate Course in Probability by Gut.
Background:
Let $$X(n)=\text{ number of individuals in generation } n.$$ We assume ##X(0)=1## and that all individuals give birth according to same probability law, independent of each other. Also, the number of offspring produced by an individual is independent of the number of individuals in their generation. Let ##Y## and ##\{Y_k: k\geq1\}## be generic r.v.s. denoting the number of children obtained by individuals, and set ##p_k=P(Y=k), \ k=0,1,2,\ldots##. The case ##P(Y=1)=1## is excluded. ##X(1)## equals the number of children of the ancestor and ##X(1)\stackrel{d}{=} Y##, i.e. ##X(1)## and ##Y## are equidistributed. Let ##Y_1,Y_2,\ldots## be the number of children obtained by the first, second, ... child. From the assumptions, ##Y_1,Y_2,\ldots## are i.i.d. and independent of ##X(1)##. Since $$X(2)=Y_1+\ldots+Y_{X(1)},$$we've got a random sum of random variables. It is known that the probability generating function (pgf) ##g_{X(2)}## of ##X(2)## is simply ##g_{X(1)}(g_Y(t))##. And since ##X(1)\stackrel{d}{=} Y##, ##g(t)=g_{X(1)}(t)=g_Y(t)##. One can easily derive a formula for the pgf of ##X(n)##.
The extinction probability is \begin{align*} \eta&=P(X(n)=0\text{ for some } n) \\ &=P\left(\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \{X(n)=0\}\right)\end{align*}
Problem:
Question:
Why does ##P(\text{extinction}\mid A_k)=\eta^k## hold? I don't see how to justify this formally, given everything above.
Background:
Let $$X(n)=\text{ number of individuals in generation } n.$$ We assume ##X(0)=1## and that all individuals give birth according to same probability law, independent of each other. Also, the number of offspring produced by an individual is independent of the number of individuals in their generation. Let ##Y## and ##\{Y_k: k\geq1\}## be generic r.v.s. denoting the number of children obtained by individuals, and set ##p_k=P(Y=k), \ k=0,1,2,\ldots##. The case ##P(Y=1)=1## is excluded. ##X(1)## equals the number of children of the ancestor and ##X(1)\stackrel{d}{=} Y##, i.e. ##X(1)## and ##Y## are equidistributed. Let ##Y_1,Y_2,\ldots## be the number of children obtained by the first, second, ... child. From the assumptions, ##Y_1,Y_2,\ldots## are i.i.d. and independent of ##X(1)##. Since $$X(2)=Y_1+\ldots+Y_{X(1)},$$we've got a random sum of random variables. It is known that the probability generating function (pgf) ##g_{X(2)}## of ##X(2)## is simply ##g_{X(1)}(g_Y(t))##. And since ##X(1)\stackrel{d}{=} Y##, ##g(t)=g_{X(1)}(t)=g_Y(t)##. One can easily derive a formula for the pgf of ##X(n)##.
The extinction probability is \begin{align*} \eta&=P(X(n)=0\text{ for some } n) \\ &=P\left(\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \{X(n)=0\}\right)\end{align*}
Problem:
Theorem: ##\eta## satisfies the equation ##t=g(t)##.
Proof. Let ##A_k=\{\text{the founding member produces } k\text{ children}\}, k\geq 0##. By the law of total probability we have $$\eta=\sum_{k=0}^\infty P(\text{extinction}\mid A_k)\cdot P(A_k).$$ Now, ##P(A_k)=p_k##, and by the independence assumptions we have $$P(\text{extinction}\mid A_k)=\eta^k.$$ This yields $$\eta=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \eta^kp_k=g(\eta).$$
Question:
Why does ##P(\text{extinction}\mid A_k)=\eta^k## hold? I don't see how to justify this formally, given everything above.