- #1
Simfish
Gold Member
- 823
- 2
So, say, we have the inequality ty <= 1-sx
Does this inequality always translate to y <= 1/t - s/tx (for t > 0)
y >= 1/t - s/tx (for t < 0)? (due to division by divided signs?)
I'm sure this is true, as I've tested it for xy <= 1. But I just want to be sure, since this nuance is definitely easy to miss (and requires a step that I'm usually not accustomed to taking so far).
Does this inequality always translate to y <= 1/t - s/tx (for t > 0)
y >= 1/t - s/tx (for t < 0)? (due to division by divided signs?)
I'm sure this is true, as I've tested it for xy <= 1. But I just want to be sure, since this nuance is definitely easy to miss (and requires a step that I'm usually not accustomed to taking so far).