- #1
CassiopeiaA
- 31
- 0
If two particles have velocities v1 and v2 in a rest frame, how do we prove that the relative lorentz factor is given by :
γ(r)=γ(1)γ(2)(1−v1.v2)
and why is this quantity lorentz invariant
γ(r)=γ(1)γ(2)(1−v1.v2)
and why is this quantity lorentz invariant