- #1
Sombrero
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Hello everyone,
In wikipedia when searching Lorentz representations, there is given that (1/2,0)*(0,1/2) corresponds to Dirac spinor representation and (1/2,1/2) is vector representation, but in P.Ramond's book "Field Theory - A Modern Primer" I read (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2), obviously I suffer from leak of knowledge.
Please advise me how do I understand this line (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2) properly and not to think that Dirac representation = Vector representation?
Also how do I identify that (1,0) representation from (1/2,0)*(1/2,0)=(0,0)*(1,0) corresponds to ""self-dual 2 form representation", could you tell me where do I find these rules or some books to read about this?
Thank you in advance
In wikipedia when searching Lorentz representations, there is given that (1/2,0)*(0,1/2) corresponds to Dirac spinor representation and (1/2,1/2) is vector representation, but in P.Ramond's book "Field Theory - A Modern Primer" I read (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2), obviously I suffer from leak of knowledge.
Please advise me how do I understand this line (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2) properly and not to think that Dirac representation = Vector representation?
Also how do I identify that (1,0) representation from (1/2,0)*(1/2,0)=(0,0)*(1,0) corresponds to ""self-dual 2 form representation", could you tell me where do I find these rules or some books to read about this?
Thank you in advance