- #1
joypav
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- 0
Problem:
Let $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be measurable. Then there exists a sequence of continuous functions $(g_n)$ such that $limg_n(x)$ exists for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and $limg_n(x) = f(x)$ a.e. x.
Is this like Lusin's Theorem? Lusin's theorem for the real numbers? If so, how does this change the proof?
Let $f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be measurable. Then there exists a sequence of continuous functions $(g_n)$ such that $limg_n(x)$ exists for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and $limg_n(x) = f(x)$ a.e. x.
Is this like Lusin's Theorem? Lusin's theorem for the real numbers? If so, how does this change the proof?