- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
- 7
Hey!
We know that:
$$(x,x)=0 \Rightarrow x=0$$
When we have $\displaystyle{(x,y)=0}$, do we conclude that $\displaystyle{x=0 \text{ AND } y=0}$. Or is this wrong? (Wondering)
We know that:
$$(x,x)=0 \Rightarrow x=0$$
When we have $\displaystyle{(x,y)=0}$, do we conclude that $\displaystyle{x=0 \text{ AND } y=0}$. Or is this wrong? (Wondering)